1) Restriction enzymes are used in genetic manipulation because
A. They always tend to join different DNA fragments
B. They can cleave DNA at specific target sequences
C. They can cut single stranded DNA at variable sites
D. They are proteolytic enzymes which can degrade harmful enzymes
2) Rice Tech faced international outrage over allegations of biopiracy involving Basmati rice.
The patent battle won by India is which form of IPR?
A. Novelty
B. Trade Mark
C. Geographical Indicator
D. Industrial Design
3) Which of the protocol/convention relates to bio-safety?
A. Kyoto Protocol
B. Cartagena Protocol
C. Montreal Protocol
D. Nagoya Protocol
4) Cosmids lack
A. Genes coding for viral proteins
B. Origin of replication
C. Marker genes coding for replication
D. Cleavage site for the insertion of foreign DNA
5) Which of the following compounds has been produced in transgenic plants to improve tolerance to salt stress and water deficit?
A. Sucrose
B. Mannitol
C. Nicotine
D. Octopine
6) Among the given agents, which one is cryo protectant?
A. DMSO, acetic acid and arginine B. DMSO, glycerol and proline
C. Glycerol, DMSO and acetic acid D. DMSO, Valine and proline
7). Nucleosome solenoid model was proposed by
A. Korenberg and Thomas B. Dupraw
C. Watson and Crick D. Haldane and Kosambi
8) Number of genes in Human mitochondrial genome is?
A. 37 B. 46 C. 23 D. 22
9) MITE is related to
A. Insect pest B. Mice genome C. Transposons D. Maize genome
10) Small cDNA sequence that represents a unique segment of an active gene is called
A. SNPs B. snRNAs C. ESTs D. Contig
11) Antisense technology
A. Selectively blocks expression of a gene
B. Combines organelles and cells
C. Combines genetic material from different species
D. Alters or transfers cells
12) The roots of a plant are converted into drug-producing structures in a process called
A. Microcosm establishment B. Hybridization
C. Bioremediation D. Rhizosecretion
13) CSSLs can be most effectively developed by
A. Mass selection B. Back crossing
C. Maker assisted back crossing D. Pure line selection
14) Improvement in mean genotype: value of the selected families over base population is known as
A. Genetic advance
B. Genetic load
C. Metabolism
D. None
15) The increased areas of great genetic diversity under natural condition is
A. Gene burden
B. Gene sanctuaries
C. Gene junction
D. Germplasm
16) The bacterial chromosome is
A. Single stranded and circular
B. Double stranded and circular
C. Single stranded and linear
D. Double stranded and linear
17. Which are the most abundant RNA types?
A. rRNA and tRNA B. rRNA and mRNA
C. tRNA and mRNA D. mRNA and microRNA
18. The process of RNA inactivation by siRNAs is termed as
A. RNA silencing B. RNA interference
C. Short RNA inactivation D. RNA disfunction
19. Suppose a certain gene contains the double-stranded sequence:
5'- ATGTTTAGCGCC -3' ''
3'- TACAATCCGCGG -5-
If the first strand is the sense strand and codes for an mRNA whose sequence begins 'ATG', which of the following would be the sequence of the corresponding segment of antisense RNA?
A. 5'-AUGUUUAGCGCC-3' B. 5'-CCGCGAUUUGUA-3'
C. 5'-GGCGCUAAACAU-3' D. 5'-UACAAAUCGCGG-3'
20. Double stranded RNA is cleaved by a nuclease called as Dicer and small fragments are generated known as
A. Short interspersed RNAs B. Long interspersed RNAs
C. Short interfering RNAs D. Long interfering RNAs
21. Optimum threshold LOD score for QTL detection is
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
22. In chromosome banding, euchromatic region is dark and heterochromatic regions are light in
A. C banding B. R banding
C. G banding D. Q banding
23. GURTS can be expanded as
A. Genome use Restriction Technologies B. Genetic Utilized Restriction Technologies
C. Gene Utilized Restriction Technologies D. Genetic Use Restriction Technologies
24. Epistasis should be carefully distinguished from dominance, the latter reference to non-additive allele at
A. The same locus of a homologous chromosome pair
B. Different loci of a homologous chromosome pair
C. Different loci of a non-homologous chromosome pair
D. The same locus of a non-homologous chromosome pair
25. Indian farmers have not accepted the introduction of "Terminator seed Technology" because the seeds produced by this technology are expected to
A. Give rise to sexually sterile plants
B. Give rise to plants incapable of forming a viable seed
C. Show poor germination
D. Low yielding in the next generation
26. General combing ability can be estimated based on the performance of
A. Parents B. Backcross C. F1 s D. F2 s
27. Highest uniformity of crop stand is observed in
A. Single cross hybrid
B. Three way cross hybrid
C. Double cross hybrid
D. Multiple cross hybrid
28. The molecular scissors or Restriction endonucleases type II cleave only
A. Double stranded DNA
B. Ligase enzymes
C. single stranded DNA
D. Repetitive DNA sequences
29. Maize is an example of
A. Monoecious plant
B. Dioecious
C. Hermaphrodite
D. Self pollinated crop
30. When plant produce functional pollen, but failure of pollen to fertilize the same flower or other flower of the same plant
A. Male sterility
B. Apomixes
C. Parthenogenesis
D. Self incompatibility
31. The number of single crosses possible by involving 10 inbreds excluding reciprocals is equal to
A.10
B.30
C.45
D.90
32. If members of a gene pool undergo hybridization and produce fertile hybrids easily, it is referred as
A. Primary gene pool
B. Secondary gene pool
C. Tertiary gene pool
D. Gene reserve
33. Which of the following methods is ideal for transferring cytoplasm from wild to cultivated species
A. Pure line selection
B. Pedigree
C. Back cross
D. SSD
34. The association between characters can be best studied in
A. Path analysis
B. RBD analysis
C. Biparental progeny analysis
D. Stability analysis
35. The source for tungro virus resistance in rice is
A. O. glaberrima
B. O. nivara
C. O. perennis
D. O. latifolia
36. Usage of genes over space and time to get resistance is called
A. Vertifolia effect
B. Durable resistance
C. Gene deployment
D. Gene staking
37. When a transgenic plant is crossed with a non-transgenic plant, what would be the zygosity status of the F₁ plant?
A. Homozygous
B. Heterozygous
C. Hemizygous
D. Nullizygous
38. In random mating population with no epistasis and zero inbreeding, the co-variance among full sib is
A. ¼ additive + ¼ Dominance
B. ½ additive + ¼ Dominance
C. ¼ additive + ½ Dominance
D. ¼ additive + ¼ Dominance
39. Line x Tester analysis is a good approach for screening germplasm on the basis of
A. GCA and SCA variances
B. GCA and SCA variances and effects
C. GCA and SCA effects
D. Perse performance of hybrids
40. In stability analysis, the genotype is highly stable when the regression coefficient is equal to
A. >1
B. 0.1
C. 1.0
D. <1
41. GEAC (Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee) is an apex body, functioning under
A. Ministry of Agriculture
B. Ministry of Science and Technology
C. Ministry of Environment and Forests
D. Department of Biotechnology
42. The most suitable mapping population for QTL analysis are?
A. NILS
B. RILS
C. BILS
D. F2 Population
43. The Pre-breeding objective is to widen the genetics base of the variety
A. By Crossing different varieties
B. By crossing with wild relatives of the crop
C. By crossing different genera of crops
D. By selling the important varieties identified earlier
44. When the allele inherited from a male parent is silenced and only female alleles are expressed, it is referred as
A. Gene silencing
B. Epigenetic expression
C. Genome imprinting
D. Gene over expression
45. Breeding of crops for improved nutritional quality is known as
A. Biofarming
B. Biomagnification
C. Bioremediation
D. Bio fortification
46. Which of the following activity is not present in Taq polymerase?
A. 5'-3' polymerase
B. 5'-3' exonuclease
C. 3'-5' exonuclease
D. Both A and B
47. If a plasmid is having two antibiotic resistant genes, say ampicillin and chloramphenicol and the plasmids grow in ampicillin containing medium but not in chloramphenicol, the conclusion is
A. The insert is not present in any of the gene
B. The insert sequence is present in ampicillin gene but not in chloramphenicol gene
C. The insert is present in choram phenicol gene but not in ampicillin gene
D. The insert is present between both of the genes
48. A scientist wants to study the viral effects on plants. Which of following part of the plant should be excluded?
A. Pith
B. Shoot apex
C. Phloem
D. Cortex
49. Sequences of DNA assembled by identifying overlaps among smaller DNA segments are known as
A. Contigs
B. Synteny
C. Draft sequences
D. Proteome
50. High heterosis levels in rice is observed in crosses between
A. Indica x Indica
B. Indica x Japonica
C. Japonica x Japonica
D. Japonica x Javanica
51. You have an interesting gene, and want to find out in what tissue it is expressed. Which one of the following resources at NCBI is likely the most direct route to obtain this information?
A. UniGene
B. Entrez
C. PubMed
D. PCR
52. Heritability may be effectively defined as the
A. Interaction product of genotype with environment
B. Degree of resemblance between the original and selected populations
C. Sum of heredity material present in a species
D. Proportion of phenotypic variability, which is due to genotypic variance
53. In Recurrent selection for GCA the tester used :
A. Inbred
B. Open pollinated variety
C. Pure line
D. Multiline
54. Which type of genomic studies the transcript and protein is expressed by a genome?
A. Structural genomics
B. Comparative genomics
C. Metabolomics
D. Functional genomics
55. The field the is concerned with management and analysis of biological data using personal computer
A. Biostatics
B. Genomics
C. Transcriptomic
D. Bio informatics
56. Which of the following method is used for single gene expression study
A. Microarray
B. Real time PCR
C. Southern blotting
D. Western blotting
57. The expansion of TILLING is
A. Targeting Induced Local Lesions in Genomics
B. Targeting Induced Local Lesions in Genomes
C. Tool for Induced Local Lesions in Genomes
D. Tool for identification of Local Lesions in Genomes
58. AMMI analysis can be used to determine stability of the genotypes across locations by using
A. Joint regression analysis
B. Cluster analysis
C. Factorial analysis
D. PCA (principal component axis)
59. Breeding of crops for improved nutritional quality is referred as
A. bio-mining
B. Bio-magnification
C. Bioremediation
D. Bio-fortification
60. For changing of few traits in a popular variety, the most commonly used breeding method is
A. Diallele selective matting
B. Pedigree method
C. Back cross method
D. Pure line method
61. Tomato transgenic line ‘Endless Summer’ has the feature of
A. Early ripening
B. High TSS
C. Delayed ripening
D. Delayed softening
62. RAPD molecular markers are
A. Recessive
B. Co dominant
C. Neutral
D. Dominant
63. In tissue culture, the most effective method to raise virus free plants, is by
A. Soma clonal variation
B. Meristem culture
C. Anther culture
D. Somatic hybridization
64. Golden rice is a genetically modified crop plant wherein the incorporated genes are meant for biosynthesis of
A. Vit-C
B. Cry-1
C. Vit -B
D. Beta-carotene
65. What are the different technique to identify alien addition line
A. Cytology B. Intracross
C. Karyotype D. Duplications
66. In which of the following, composites and populations can be developed?
A. Self-pollinated B. Cross pollinated
C. Vegetatively propagated D. Bulbs
67. The genetic control of chromosomes pairing during meiosis in wheat is due to
A. Ph1 gene on 5BS B. Ph1 gene on 5BL
C. Ph1 gene on 1BS D. Ph1 gene on 1BL
68. A bivalent of Metaphase -1 consists of
A. Two chromatids and two centromeres B. Two chromatids and one centromeres
C. Four chromatids and one centromeres D. Four chromatids and two centromeres
69. Theoretically heritability of a character in a pure line
A. 0% B. 100% C. 75% D. 50%
70. A sequence qualifies for patent if it is
A. An intron B. A functional gene in a vector
C. EST D. Amplicon amplified
71. Heterosis is maximized when
A. +[h] and +[l] are present B. rd=-1 and ri=0
C. +[h] and -[l] are present D. rd=ri=1
72. The best method to break the unfavorable linkage is
A. single seed descent method B. Diallele selective matting
C. Pedigree method D. bulk method
73. Additive variance is the variance of
A. Additive effects B. interaction of additive effects
C.Breeding value D. sum of variance of additive effects
74. Cis-trans complementation test is to detect the
A. Dominance B. crossing over
C. linkage D. allelism
75. Sears (1956) first transferred a segment of a chromosome with rust resistance gene through radiation induced translocation in wheat from
A. Agellopsis speltoides B. Agellopsis umbuellulata
C. Agrotis umbuellulata D. Agellopsis sgauorosa
76. The design used to estimate the epistatic effects
A. Path analysis B. NC designs
C. Stability analysis D. Generation mean analysis
77. The order of precision in calculation of additive and dominance variation is
A. NCDII>NCDIII>NCDI B. NCDI>NCDIII>NCDII
C. NCDI>NCDII>NCDIII D.NCDIII>NCDII>NCDI
78. The number of genotypes possible when there are 6 multiple alleles for a given gene
A.20 B.21 C.40 D.7
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