1. Who coined the term genetics?
A) T.H. Morgan
B) Hugo de Vries
C) W.L. Johannsen
D) W. Batson
2. Who coined the terms "Phenotype" and "Genotype"?
A) Johannsen
B) W. Batson
C) T.H. Morgan
D) Muller
3. Double helical structure of DNA was given by
A) Jacob and Monod
B) Khorana
C) Watson and Crick
D) Swammerdam and Bonnet
4. Who proposed the "Preformation theory"?
A) Jacob and Monod B) Khorana C) Watson and Crick D) Swammerdam and Bonnest
5. Theory of Acquired Characters was proposed by
- A) Lamarck B) Wolff C) Swammerdam and Bonnest D) Charles Darwin
6. Germplasm Theory was given by
- A) Weismann B) Charles Darwin C) Lamarck D) Wolff
7. Jacob and Monad developed the concept of
- A) Operon B) Preformation theory C) Acquired Characters D) Double helical structure of DNA
8. The chromosomes were discovered by
- A) Moore B) Strauss burger C) Leeuwenhoek D) Balbiyani
9. In 1919, duplication in Drosophila was first reported by ________
- A) Bridge B) Morgan C) Bateson D) De Vries
10. Which of the following is/are the types of microscope?
- A) Simple microscope B) Compound microscope C) Optical microscope D) All of the above
11. In 1909, which scientist gave the term epistasis?
- A) Bateson B) Flemming C) Watson D) Muller
12. Which one of the following is the map unit used to describe the distance between two genes on a chromosome?
- A) Millimorgan B) Centrimorgan C) Morgan D) Micromorgan
13. Alternative form of a gene is known as _____
- A) Germ cell B) Locus C) Allele D) Gamete
14. In 1909, who gave the term “Gene”?
- A) Johanssen B) Bateson C) Sutton D) Fisher
### **Cell Division**
15. The microscope was invented by
- A) Moore B) Strauss burger C) Leeuwenhoek D) Balbiyani
16. The term "mitosis" was coined by
- A) Flemming B) Moore C) Sutton D) J.B. Farmer
17. Which of the following is the longest stage of the cell cycle?
- A) Metaphase B) S C) G1 D) Anaphase
18. Which of the following is the shortest stage of the cell cycle?
- A) Metaphase B) S C) G1 D) Anaphase
19. Meiotic division of one cell gives rise to how many haploid cells?
- A) 2 B) 4 C) 6 D) 8
20. Select the correct order of mitotic cell division cycle
- A) Interphase-metaphase-anaphase-telophase-prophase
- B) Interphase-prophase-metaphase-telophase-anaphase
- C) Interphase-prophase-metaphase-anaphase-telophase
- D) Prophase-metaphase-interphase-anaphase-telophase
21. The type of cell division that takes place in cells of somatic tissues
- A) Mitosis B) Meiosis C) Both A) and B) D) None of the above
22. Crossing over takes place during which stage of the cell cycle?
- A) Leptotene B) Pachytene C) Zygotene D) Diplotene
23. Which of the following events occurs during metaphase of meiosis-I?
- A) Chiasma terminalization B) Arrangement of bivalents at equatorial plate
- C) Crossing over D) Separation of homologous chromosomes
24. The period from one cell division to another next cell division is called as
- A) Cell period B) Grand period C) Cell cycle D) Cell generation
25. Consists of two nuclear divisions
- A) Mitosis B) Meiosis C) Both A) and B) D) None of the above
26. Pairing of homologous chromosomes takes place during
- A) Mitosis B) Meiosis C) Both A) and B) D) None of the above
27. Meiosis leads to the development of
- A) Zygote B) Root C) Organ D) Gamete
28. Mitosis takes place in
- A) Megaspore B) Pollen mother cells C) Pollen D) Both A) and C)
29. Chromosomes are clearly visible at
- A) Metaphase B) Telophase C) Anaphase D) Prophase
30. Crossing over takes place between
- A) Homologous chromosomes B) Non-homologous chromosomes
- C) Isochromosomes D) All of these
31. Nucleolus disappears at the end
- A) Prophase B) Metaphase C) Anaphase D) Telophase
32. Nucleolus reappears at the end of
- A) Prophase B) Metaphase C) Anaphase D) Telophase
33. One cycle of mitosis gives rise to
- A) Two haploid cells B) Two diploid cells C) Four haploid cells D) Four diploid cells
34. Shape of chromosome is determined by the position of
- A) Centromere B) Chromomere C) Telomere D) All of these
35. Homologous chromosomes separate and move towards opposite poles during which stage?
- A) Metaphase-I B) Telophase-I C) Anaphase-I D) Prophase-I
36. The length of the G1 phase in Vicia faba is?
- A) 6 Hours B) 8 Hours C) 10 Hours D) 12 Hours
37. The process of division of cytoplasm is known as?
- A) Cytokinesis B) Karyokinesis C) Idiogram D) None of the above
38. In meiosis, Prophase-I is divided into _____ sub-stages?
- A) Three B) Four C) Five D) Six
39. Synaptonemal complex is formed in which of the following stages?
- A) Leptotene B) Zygotene C) Pachytene D) Diplotene
40. Pairing of homologous chromosomes occurs during which stage?
- A) Leptotene B) Zygotene C) Pachytene D) Diplotene
41. Chiasmata formation takes place during which stage?
- A) Leptotene B) Zygotene C) Pachytene D) Diplotene
42. Chiasmata terminalization is completed during which stage?
- A) Diplonema B) Diakinesis C) Pachynema D) Zygonema
43. Another name of Mitosis is
- A) Equatorial division B) Reductional division C) Heterotypic division D) Somatic division
44. Another name of Mitosis is
- A) Equatorial division B) Reductional division C) Heterotypic division D) Homotypic division
45. Another name of Meiosis is
- A) Somatic division B) Homotypic division C) Reductional division D) None of the above
46. During interphase, the sequence of sub-stages is
- A) S, G1, G2 B) G1, S, G2 C) S, G2, G1 D) G1, G2, S
47. Mitosis does not provide opportunities for
- A) Segregation B) Recombination C) Crossing over D) All of the above
48. At which of the following stage, chromosomes reach opposite poles?
- A) Prophase B) Metaphase C) Anaphase D) Telophase
49. In meiosis, the sequence of sub-stages in prophase-I is
- A) Leptotene-Zygotene-Pachytene-Diakinesis-Diplotene
- B) Leptotene-Pachytene-Zygotene-Diplotene-Diakinesis
- C) Leptotene-Zygotene-Pachytene-Diplotene-Diakinesis
- D) Leptotene-Zygotene-Diplotene-Pachytene-Diakinesis
### **Cell Structure and Chi-square**
50. Which of the following does not contain DNA?
- A) Chloroplasts B) Golgi body C) Nucleus D) All of the above
51. Which of the following is surrounded by two membranes?
- A) Mitochondria B) Chloroplasts C) Nucleus D) All of the above
52. Which of the following provides genetic information for cell function?
- A) Mitochondria B) Chloroplasts C) Nucleus D) All of the above
53. Who coined the term "Mitochondria"?
- A) Hollicker B) Benda C) Montgomery D) Theodore Boveri
54. Which of the following is the main function of chloroplasts?
- A) Protein synthesis B) Respiration C) Photosynthesis D) Glycolysis
55. Nucleus consists of
- A) Nuclear membrane B) Nucleolus C) Chromatin D) All of the above
56. Powerhouse of the cell refers to
- A) Mitochondria B) Chloroplasts C) Nucleus D) All of the above
57. Nucleolus is found in
- A) Cytoplasm B) Nucleus C) Hyloplasm D) None of these
58. In a cell, sites of protein synthesis are
- A) Ribosomes B) None of these C) Plastids D) Chloroplasts
59. Digestive enzymes are contained in
- A) Lysosomes B) Ribosomes C) Plastids D) All of these
60. In green plants, photosynthesis takes place in
- A) Chloroplasts B) Mitochondria C) Golgi body D) Nucleus
61. Plastid or chloroplast inheritance is related with
- A) Animal B) Plant C) Both A & B D) None of above
62. The region where the two sister chromatids of a chromosome appear to be ‘joined’ during mitotic metaphase is known as _______
- A) Chromomere B) Telomere C) Kinetochore D) Holomere
63. Which of the following is/are correct sentence/s?
- i) Plants have longer size of chromosome than animals
- ii) Monocots have longer size of chromosome than dicots
- A) i) B) ii) C) Both i) and ii) D) None of the above
64. Phenotypic appearance of chromosomes of a particular species is known as _____
- A) Ideogram B) Chromonema C) Chromomere D) Karyotype
65. Who discovered the “cell”?
- A) Robert Brown B) Robert Hooke C) Strauss Burger D) Flemming
66. Leucoplasts are important for storage of
- A) Lipids B) Starch C) Proteins D) All of the above
67. Stroma and grana are associated with the function of
- A) Respiration B) Absorption C) Transpiration D) Photosynthesis
68. Packaging of food material is associated with
- A) Chloroplasts B) Ribosomes C) Golgi bodies D) Lysosomes
69. Lysosomes develop from
- A) Golgi bodies B) Chloroplast C) Ribosomes D) None of the above
70. Puffs are observed in
- A) Normal chromosome B) Isochromosomes C) Lampbrush chromosome D) Polytene chromosomes
71. Loops are observed in
- A) Normal chromosome B) Isochromosomes C) Lampbrush chromosome D) Polytene chromosomes
### **Chromosomal Aberrations and Structure**
72. A chromosome with a diffused centromere is called
- A) Telocentric chromosome B) Metacentric chromosome
- C) Holocentric chromosome D) Polytene chromosome
73. Structural changes of chromosomes occur due to ______ of chromosomes
- A) Breakage B) Reunion C) Breakage and reunion D) All of above
74. The maximum number of linkage groups in absence of crossing over is equal to its _______ chromosome number
- A) Diploid B) Triploid C) Haploid D) Tetraploid
75. An individual lacking two chromosomes from the diploid set is referred to as ________
- A) Monosomic B) Trisomic C) Tetrasomic D) Nullisomic
76. Basic chromosome number is denoted by _________
- A) n B) x C) 2n D) 2x
77. When centromere is involved in the inversion, it is known as _____ inversion
- A) Metacentric B) Pericentric C) Peracentric D) Telocentric
78. The change in chromosome number which involves the entire set is called ______
- A) Aneuploidy B) Euploidy C) Polyploidy D) None of the above
79. Which of the following can cause the change in chromosome structure?
- A) Translocation B) Duplication C) Deletion D) All of the above
80. Which of the following can cause pseudodominance?
- A) Inversion B) Translocation C) Deletion D) Duplication
81. Nullisomics are represented by which of the following?
- A) 2n + 2 B) 2n - 1 + 1 C) 2n - 2 D) 2n - 1 - 1
82. In which of the following, a complete set of monosomics is available?
- A) Cotton B) Wheat C) Oat D) All of the above
83. Who demonstrated that loss of telomere makes chromosome ends unstable?
- A) Muller B) Morgan C) Stadler D) Stern
84. During 1923, translocation was discovered by which of the following?
- A) Bridges B) Belling C) Sturtevant D) Morgan
85. How many somatic chromosomes are present in maize?
- A) 10 B) 20 C) 22 D) 18
86. Colchicine is extracted from which of the following?
- A) Colchicum autumnale B) Allium cepa C) Rosa indica D) Coleus blumei
87. Bread wheat (Triticum aestivum) is an example of?
- A) Triploid B) Diploid C) Tetraploid D) Hexaploid
88. Monosomics are represented by which of the following?
- A) 2n + 1 B) 2n - 1 + 1 C) 2n – 1 D) 2n - 1 - 1
89. Double monosomics are represented by which of the following?
- A) 2n + 2 B) 2n - 1 + 1 C) 2n - 2 D) 2n - 1 - 1
90. Trisomics are represented by which of the following?
- A) 2n + 1 B) 2n + 1 + 1 C) 2n - 1 D) 2n - 1 - 1
91. Double trisomics are represented by which of the following?
- A) 2n + 2 B) 2n + 1 + 1 C) 2n - 2 D) 2n - 1 - 1
92. Tetrasomics are represented by which of the following?
- A) 2n + 2 B) 2n + 1 + 1 C) 2n – 2 D) 2n - 1 - 1
93. Inversion leads to change in
- A) Gene sequence B) Gene number C) Gene composition D) None of the above
94. Translocation leads to change in
- A) Gene sequence B) Gene number C) Gene structure D) None of the above
95. Exchange of chromosomal segments between non-homologous chromosomes is
- A) Transversion B) Crossing over C) Translocation D) Inversion
96. Terminal deletion involves chromosome breakage at
- A) One point B) Two points C) Three points D) Four points
97. Intercalary deletion involves chromosome breakage at
- A) One point B) Two points C) Three points D) Four points
98. The length of chromosome having deletion is
- A) Shorter than normal B) Longer than normal C) Thicker than normal D) Thinner than normal
99. The genetic constitution of Brassica nigra is
- A) AA B) BB C) CC D) AABB
100. ‘U’ triangle is associated with
- A) Wheat B) Cotton C) Brassica D) Tobacco
101. Which of the following is a tetraploid species of Brassica?
- A) B. campestris B) B. oleracea C) B. nigra D) B. juncea
102. Which of the following is a diploid species of Brassica?
- A) B. juncea B) B. carinata C) B. nigra D) B. napus
103. Which of the following are the parents of Nicotiana tabacum?
- A) N. tomentosa x N. sylvestris B) N. rustica x N. tomentosa
- C) N. sylvestris x N. tomentosa D) N. sylvestris x N. rustica
104. How many somatic chromosomes are present in pearl millet?
- A) 10 B) 7 C) 14 D) 21
105. Two ends of chromosomes are known as
- A) Telomere B) Centromere C) Chromomere D) Holomere
106. Somatic chromosome number in Triticum aestivum is
- A) 2n = 2x = 14 B) 2n = 4x = 28 C) 2n = 6x = 42 D) 2n = 3x = 21
107. Which of the following is/are correct sentence/s?
- (1) Plants have longer size of chromosome than animals
- (2) Monocots have longer size of chromosome than dicots
- A) (1) B) (2) C) Both (1) and (2) D) None of both
108. The term chromosome was coined by which of the following?
- A) Waldeyer B) Strasberger C) Wilson D) Bovery
109. During cell division, spindle fibers attach to which of the following?
- A) Telomere B) Nucleosome C) Chromosome D) Centromere
110. Which of the following is the most commonly used for chromosome substitution?
- A) Monosomics B) Nullisomics C) Trisomics D) All of them
111. The individual with more than two copies of a single genome is known as
- A) Autopolyploid B) Allopolyploid C) Monoploid D) Haploid
112. The individual with two or more different genomes is known as
- A) Autopolyploid B) Allopolyploid C) Monoploid D) Haploid
113. In case of chromosomes, which of the following changes with the stage of the cell cycle?
- A) Length B) Diameter C) DNA content D) All of the above
114. Primary constriction is also called
- A) Centromere B) Kinetochore C) Chromomere D) Both A) & B) above
115. Which of the following is not part of the chromosome?
- A) Centromere B) Spindle fiber C) Chromomere D) Telomere
116. B chromosome is also known as
- A) Accessory chromosomes B) Supernumerary chromosome
- C) Extra chromosome D) All of the above
117. An individual lacking one chromosome from the diploid set is referred to as
- A) Nullisomic B) Trisomic C) Monosomic D) Tetrasomic
118. Aneuploidy refers to
- A) Trisomic B) Monosomic C) Nullisomic D) All of these
119. In 1882, Lampbrush chromosomes were very firstly examined by
- A) Flemming B) Morgan C) Strausburger D) Mendel
120. Which of the following is a special type of chromosome?
- A) Lampbrush Chromosome B) Polytene chromosome
- C) B-chromosome D) All of the above
121. Which is the shape of chromosome at anaphase for Metacentric chromosome?
- A) V shape B) L shape C) J shape D) Rod shape
122. Which is the shape of chromosome at anaphase for Sub-metacentric chromosome?
- A) V shape B) L shape C) J shape D) Rod shape
123. Which is the shape of chromosome at anaphase for Acrocentric chromosome?
- A) V shape B) L shape C) J shape D) Rod shape
124. Which is the shape of chromosome at anaphase for Telocentric chromosome?
- A) V shape B) L shape C) J shape D) Rod shape
---
### **Mendel's Laws**
125. Mendel discovered laws of inheritance working with
- A) Maize B) Drosophila C) Garden pea D) Barley
126. Mendel is known as the father of
- A) Biology B) Botany C) Genetics D) Cytology
127. How many characters did Mendel study in garden pea?
- A) 3 B) 5 C) 7 D) 10
128. Heterozygous individuals are represented as
- A) RR B) rr C) Rr D) None of the above
129. A cross in which the order of male and female parents is reversed is called
- A) Back cross B) Test cross C) Reciprocal cross D) Direct cross
130. Johannsen coined the terms
- A) Genotype B) Phenotype C) Gene D) All of these
131. A cross of F1 with its homozygous recessive parent is called
- A) Direct cross B) Reciprocal cross C) Test cross D) Direct cross
132. Characters whose development depends upon a specific environment are known as
- A) Common characters B) Environmental characters
- C) Threshold characters D) None of the above
133. Mendel gave the law of
- A) Law of segregation B) Law of independent assortment
- C) Both A) and B) D) None of the above
134. Monohybrid ratio is
- A) 3:1 B) 1:1 C) 2:1 D) 9:3:3:1
135. Dihybrid ratio is
- A) 3:1 B) 1:1 C) 2:1 D) 9:3:3:1
136. Trihybrid ratio is
- A) 27:9:3:9:3:9:3:1 B) 27:9:9:9:3:3:3:1 C) 9:3:3:1 D) 3:1
137. Mendel was basically ________
- A) Austrian botanist B) French mathematician
- C) German botanist D) None of the above
138. Which of the scientists independently rediscovered Mendel’s results?
- A) Correns B) Tschermak C) de Vries D) All of the above
139. Mendel’s results were rediscovered in which year?
- A) 1900 B) 1866 C) 1905 D) 1910
### **Linkage**
140. Linkage between dominant allele of one gene with the recessive allele of another gene is known as
- A) Coupling phase B) Repulsion phase C) Repulsive phase D) Compulsive phase
141. Linkage between dominant or recessive alleles of two or more genes is known as
- A) Coupling phase B) Repulsion phase C) Repulsive phase D) Compulsive phase
142. Presence of linkage leads to a high frequency of
- A) Parental types B) Recombination C) New combinations D) None of these
143. Normally crossing over promotes
- A) Linkage B) Parental types C) Recombinations D) All of these
144. Frequency of crossing over never exceeds from
- A) 5 B) 25 C) 50 D) 75
145. Chromosome map is also known as
- A) Genetic map B) Linkage map C) Both A) and B) above D) None of these
146. Tendency of two or more genes to be inherited together.
- A) Homozygosity B) Linkage C) Dominance D) Heterozygosity
147. The tendency of one crossover to reduce the chance of another crossover in its adjacent region is called
- A) Interference B) Linkage C) Dominance D) Heterozygote
148. Linkage can be determined by
- A) Test cross method B) Repeated inter mating C) Top cross method D) Back cross method
149. In 1905, repulsion and coupling phase of linkage were given by
- A) Morgan B) Bateson and Punnet C) Muller D) Bridges
150. Who gave the terms cis and trans for coupling and repulsion phase of linkage?
- A) Muller B) Hutchinson C) Morgan D) Haldane
### **Gene Action**
151. The gene having a masking effect is called
- A) Modifier gene B) Enhancer gene C) Epistatic gene D) Hypostatic gene
152. Manifold effects of a gene refer to
- A) Penetrance B) Expressivity C) Pleiotropy D) Epistasis
153. The gene whose effect is masked is called
- A) Hypostatic gene B) Pleiotropic gene C) Modifier gene D) None of these
154. Expression of both alleles in F1 refers to
- A) Partial dominance B) Incomplete dominance C) Co-dominance D) None of these
155. Ratio of complementary epistasis is
- A) 9:7 B) 15:1 C) 12:3:1 D) 9:3:3:1
156. Ratio of Recessive epistasis is
- A) 9:3:4 B) 15:1 C) 12:3:1 D) 9:3:3:1
157. Ratio of Duplicate dominant gene interaction is
- A) 9:3:4 B) 15:1 C) 12:3:1 D) 9:3:3:1
158. Ratio of Polymeric gene action is
- A) 9:3:4 B) 9:6:1 C) 12:3:1 D) 9:3:3:1
159. Ratio of Inhibitory epistasis is
- A) 13:3 B) 15:1 C) 12:3:1 D) 9:7
160. Epistasis is also referred to as
- A) Intergenic interaction B) Interallelic interaction
- C) Interlocus interaction D) All of the above
161. Another name of Simple epistasis is
- A) Dominant epistasis B) Supplementary epistasis
- C) Complementary epistasis D) Duplicate epistasis
162. The gene whose effect is masked is known as
- A) Epistatic gene B) Modifier gene C) Hypostatic gene D) Pleiotropic gene
### **DNA Structure and Protein Synthesis**
163. A nucleotide consists of which of the following?
- A) Base + pentose B) Pentose + phosphate
- C) Organic base + phosphate D) Base + pentose + phosphate
164. In a DNA molecule, thymine always pairs with
- A) Adenine B) Guanine C) Cytosine D) All of these
165. How many hydrogen bonds join adenine and thymine in a DNA molecule?
- A) Single B) Double C) Triple D) All of these
166. Proteins are composed of _____ different amino acids.
- A) 16 B) 64 C) 20 D) 4
167. Which form of DNA is common in vivo?
- A) A-DNA B) B-DNA C) C-DNA D) Z-DNA
168. DNA is a polymer of
- A) Amino acids B) Nucleotides C) Proteins D) All of these
169. How many hydrogen bonds join guanine and cytosine in a DNA molecule?
- A) One B) Two C) Three D) Four
170. How many codons are there in a genetic code?
- A) 4 B) 16 C) 64 D) 32
171. Purines include
- A) Adenine B) Thymine C) Guanine D) Both A) and C)
172. Pyrimidines include
- A) Cytosine B) Thymine C) Uracil D) All of these
173. The process of mRNA synthesis from a DNA template is called
- A) Translation B) Transcription C) Transduction D) Transformation
174. Which of the following is the common mode of DNA replication?
- A) Conservative B) Semi-conservative C) Dispersive D) All of these
175. The process of DNA synthesis from RNA is known as
- A) Reverse transcription B) Reverse translation
- C) Transcription D) Reverse mutation
176. Who won the Nobel prize for the operon hypothesis?
- A) Baltimore B) Temin C) Jacob and Monod D) Britten
177. The codon 3’-AUG-5’ base pairs with which of the following anticodons?
- A) 5’-UAC-3’ B) 3’-TAG-5’ C) 5’-CAU-5’ D) 3’-GAU-5’
178. In a DNA molecule, replacement of guanine by cytosine will be called
- A) Base substitution B) Transversion C) Both A) and B) D) Transition
179. The term translation is related to the synthesis of which of the following?
- A) DNA B) Protein C) RNA D) Both b) and c)
180. According to the concept of central dogma, genetic information flows?
- A) DNA → Protein → RNA B) DNA → RNA → Protein
- C) DNA ↔ RNA → Protein D) RNA → DNA → Protein
181. Triplet codon must be
- A) Universal B) Continuity C) Redundancy D) All of the above
182. In a DNA molecule, replacement of purine by purine will be called
- A) Transfection B) Transversion C) Reversion D) Transition
183. In a DNA molecule, replacement of pyrimidine by pyrimidine will be called
- A) Transfection B) Transversion C) Reversion D) Transition
184. In a DNA molecule, replacement of purines by pyrimidine or pyrimidine by purines will be called
- A) Transfection B) Transversion C) Reversion D) Transition
185. DNA does not contain
- A) Uracil B) Adenine C) Guanine D) Thymine
186. Proteins are composed of _____ different amino acids
- A) 4 B) 20 C) 30 D) 64
187. ‘P’ site, ‘A’ site, and ‘E’ site are associated with
- A) Protein synthesis B) mRNA synthesis C) tRNA synthesis D) DNA synthesis
188. The sections of DNA (or RNA) that code for proteins are called
- A) Introns B) Exons C) Sensor sequence D) None of the above
189. Non-coding section of the RNA transcript is
- A) Introns B) Exons C) Sensor sequence D) None of the above
### **Mutation**
190. Mutation was first discovered by
- A) Muller B) De Vries C) Wright D) Stadler
191. Who induced artificial mutation in plants by X-rays?
- A) Muller B) Stadler C) Seth Wright D) Mendel
192. Which of the following mutagens is a base analogue?
- A) EMS B) 5 BU C) MMS D) EES
193. Which of the following is generally the frequency of spontaneous mutations?
- A) 10-6 B) 10-4 C) 10-5 D) 10-7
194. Within a gene, a unit of mutation is called
- A) Hot spot B) Cistron C) Muton D) Recon
195. A gene which exhibits a higher mutation rate than other genes is called
- A) Mutator gene B) Antimutator gene C) Mutable gene D) Hot spot
196. Mutations have which of the following characteristics?
- A) They are recessive & Harmful B) They are random & recurrent
- C) Often, mutations show pleiotropy D) All of the above
197. Mutagenic changes result from which of the following alterations in DNA?
- A) Deletion of bases B) Insertion of bases C) Base substitution D) All of the above
198. Methylmethane sulphonate is
- A) Hormone B) Base Analogue C) Physical mutagen D) Chemical Mutagen
199. A mutation which kills the individual that carries it.
- A) Lethal B) Sub-lethal C) Vital D) Sub-vital
200. When mortality is more than 50% of individuals that carry mutation.
- A) Lethal B) Sub-lethal C) Vital D) Sub-vital
201. When mortality is less than 50% of individuals that carry mutation.
- A) Lethal B) Sub-lethal C) Vital D) Sub-vital
202. Based on Survival, mutation can be classified into
- A) Lethal B) Sub-lethal C) Sub-vital D) All of the above
203. Sites within genes show very high rates of mutation
- A) Centre for mutation B) Mutable site C) Mutation site D) Hot spot
204. Physical mutagen is/are
- A) X-rays B) Gamma rays C) None of the above D) Both A) and B)
205. EMS stands for
- A) Ethylmethane sulphonate B) Ethylmethyl sulphonate
- C) Ethylmethane sulpher D) Ethyl Mustard sulphonate
### **Quantitative Traits, Multiple Factor Hypothesis, Multiple Alleles, Maternal Effect**
206. Quantitative character is also called
- A) Minor gene character B) Polygenic character
- C) Variable character D) All of these
207. Polygenic characters are governed by
- A) Few genes B) Single gene C) Several genes D) All of these
208. Kernel colour in wheat is a quantitative character and was studied by
- A) Nilsson-Ehle B) Mendel C) Morgan D) Muller
209. In 1909, the multiple factor hypothesis was experimentally demonstrated in wheat by which of the following scientists?
- A) Nilson-Ehle B) Robert Brown C) T.H. Morgan D) M.H. Morgan
210. "A" blood group phenotype will be produced by which of the following genotypes?
- A) IAIA B) IAIO C) IAIB D) Both a) and c)
211. In 1909, cytoplasmic inheritance was first reported by
- A) Correns B) Mendel C) Tschemark D) Hugo de Vries
212. Cytoplasmic male sterility is not used in _______ crop
- A) Grain B) Fruit crop C) Vegetatively propagated D) None of above
213. Sterility property of triploids is useful in the production of seedless watermelons and sugar beet
- A) Watermelons B) Banana C) Apple D) All of above
214. Hybrid seeds in bajra are produced by using _________ type of male sterility
- A) Cytoplasmic-Genetic B) Cytoplasmic C) Genetic D) Transgenic
215. Which among the following is not a Fur colour of Rabbits?
- A) Himalayan B) Asian C) Agouti D) Albino
216. Phenomenon of a single gene affecting two or more different characters
- A) Pleiotropy B) Penetrance C) Expressivity D) None of the above
217. Ability of Gene to express itself in the individuals carrying that gene in the appropriate genotype
- A) Pleiotropy B) Penetrance C) Expressivity D) None of the above
218. Ability of a gene to express itself in all the individuals that carry it in the appropriate genotype
- A) Pleiotropy B) Penetrance C) Expressivity D) None of the above
219. ABO blood group in humans is the example of which of the following?
- A) Complete dominance B) Incomplete dominance
- C) Co-dominance D) Both b) and c)
220. Who coined the term genetics?
(A) Hugo de vries
(B) W.L. Johannsen
(C) T.H. Morgan
(D) W. Bateson
221. The germplasm theory was proposed by _____
(A) Weisman
(B) Mendel
(C) Darwin
(D) Hugo de vries
222. The alternative forms of a gene are known as _____
(A) Transgene
(B) Pseudogene
(C) Mixed gene
(D) Alleles
223. Which of the following is the controlling centre of a cell
(A) Chloroplast
(B) Nucleus
(C) Nucleolus
(D) Mitochondria
224. Which of the following produces pseudo-dominance
(A) Inversion
(B) Deletion
(C) Duplication
(D) Translocation
225. Which of the following bases is not present in DNA
(A) Adenine
(B) Thymine
(C) Uracil
(D) Cytosine
226. Balbiani rings are found in which of the following
(A) Lampbrush chromosomes
(B) Sex chromosomes
(C) Polytene chromosomes
(D) B chromosomes
227. In which of the following sub stages of meiosis-I, chromatin exchange between non- sister chromatids is completed
(A) Pachytene
(B) Diplotene
(C) Zygotene
(D) Diakinesis
228. The theory of origin of species through natural selection was proposed by _____
(A) Darwin
(B) Lamarck
(C) Mendel
(D) Vilmorin
Ans. A
229. In 1909 multiple factor hypothesis was given by _____
(A) Levene
(B) Brown
(C) Nilson Ehle
(D) Waldeyer
230. Mendel’s laws were rediscovered in which of the following years
(A) 1890
(B) 1905
(C) 1900
(D) 1898
231. The term ‘genotype’ and ‘phenotype’ were introduced by _____
(A) W.L. Johannsen
(B) W.Bateson
(C) G.J. Mendel
(D) R.C. Punnet
232 . Gene which affect the expression of more than one character are known as which of the following
(A) Multiple gene
(B) Pleiotropic gene
(C) Epistatic gene
(D) Hypostatic gene
233. Effect of one gene on the phenotypic expression of other non-allelic gene is termed as which of the following
(A) Dominance
(B) Pleiotropy
(C) Epistatic
(D) Over-dominance
234. In case of supplementary gene action, F2 generation shows which of the following phenotypic ratio
(A) 9:3:4
(B) 9:7
(C) 12:3:1
(D) 9:6:1
235. The smallest animal egg is _______
(A) Ostrich
(B) Human female
(C) Duck
(D) Hen
236. The largest animal cell is ________
(A) Ostrich
(B) Horse
(C) Monkey
(D) Duck
237. The largest plant cells are ________
(A) Xylem vessel cell
(B) Parenchyma cells
(C) Sieve tube cells
(D) Sclerenchyma fibers
238. The smallest component of cell is ______
(A) Microfilament
(B) Ribosome
(C) Plastid
(D) Phagosome
239. The smaller cell is metabolically _____
(A) Less active
(B) With smaller nucleus
(C) With larger nucleus
(D) More active
237. Cells metabolically active have _________
(A) Lower nucleo-cytoplasmic ratio
(B) Higher nucleo-cytoplasmic ratio
(C) Higher surface: volume ratio
(D) Both B and C
238. Exception of cell theory is _____
(A) Protistans
(B) Algae
(C) Virus
(D) Mycoplasma
239. The property of cell in which a cell can form many phenotypes is _____
(A) Totipotency
(B) Parasexually
(C) Pleuriopotency
(D) Parthenogenesis
240. Food vacuole in cell is made from ______
(A) Phagosome + Lysosome
(B) Phagosome + Feeding canals
(C) Vesicles of a gas vacuole
(D) None of the above
241. Granules of nucleolus are _____
(A) Precursors of ribosomes
(B) Precursors of RNA
(C) Precursors of chromosomes
(D) None of the above
242. Nucleolar organizing region (NOR) is occurs in the region of ¬¬¬¬¬______
(A) Secondary constriction
(B) Primary constriction
(C) Telomere
(D) Centromere
243. Chromosomes present in Eukaryotic cell are composed of _______
(A) RNA + DNA
(B) DNA + Protein
(C) Only RNA
(D) Only DNA
244. Balbiani rings are called ______
(A) Coilling of chromonemata
(B) Uncoilling of chromonemata
(C) Both A and B
(D) Enlargements of centromere
245. In case of plant chromosomes which type of banding techniques used?
(A) C and N
(B) C and G
(C) G and R
(D) Q and G
246. Middle lamella contains _______
(A) Cellulose
(B) Lignin
(C) Pectate
(D) Cutin
