Below is the organized list of the 100 multiple-choice questions (MCQs) from the Rajasthan Pre-PG Old Question Paper 2014, as provided in your request. Each question is presented exactly as given, with the options labeled as (a), (b), (c), and (d) for clarity and organization, followed by an "Answer" placeholder. No modifications or additional information (e.g., answers) are included, respecting your instruction to provide the questions "as it is" with options organized as (a), (b), (c), (d).
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**Q.1** Which is the production of desirable change in human behavior?
(a) Education
(b) Knowledge
(c) Attitude
(d) Aspiration
Answer
**Q.2** Which of the following is not the mass contact extension teaching method?
(a) Tours
(b) Leaflet
(c) Posters
(d) Circular letter
Answer
**Q.3** In which of the following types of family, a man marries more than one wife?
(a) Matrilineal family
(b) Polygynous family
(c) Patrilineal family
(d) Polyandrous family
Answer
**Q.4** Which of the following is not the method of selection of lay leaders?
(a) Election
(b) Sociometry
(c) Performance test
(d) Discussion method
Answer
**Q.5** When there is limited time for discussion, the large group of audience is divided into smaller units for a short period, it is called?
(a) Buzz session
(b) Symposium
(c) Workshop
(d) Brain storming
Answer
**Q.6** The ability of an individual to project oneself into the role of another person is called?
(a) Fidelity
(b) Empathy
(c) Credibility
(d) Perception
Answer
**Q.7** Strategic Research and Extension Plan has been prepared in which of the following programmes?
(a) KVK
(b) ATIC
(c) ATMA
(d) T & V system
Answer
**Q.8** Normally how many innovations are found in farming community?
(a) 16%
(b) 34%
(c) 2.5%
(d) 13.5%
Answer
**Q.9** The period of five-year plan recently ended in the country is?
(a) 2011-2016
(b) 2012-2017
(c) 2013-2018
(d) 2014-2019
Answer
**Q.10** The movement of secondary branches of roots and stem growing at right angle is known as?
(a) Plagiogeotropic
(b) Diageotropic
(c) Apogeotropic
(d) None of these
Answer
**Q.11** ……..has, therefore rightly called transpiration as the “necessary evil”?
(a) Kogl
(b) Curtis
(c) D.D. Woods
(d) Skoog and Miller
Answer
**Q.12** Which hormone is responsible for stimulating DNA synthesis in plants?
(a) Auxins
(b) Ethylene
(c) Cytokinins
(d) Gibberellins
Answer
**Q.13** The first stable product of carbon assimilation is?
(a) Starch
(b) Glucose
(c) Pyruvic acid
(d) Phosphoglyceric acid
Answer
**Q.14** Maximum elongation of internodal region can be seen in?
(a) Blue light
(b) Green light
(c) Red light
(d) White light
Answer
**Q.15** Lactose consists of?
(a) Glucose and fructose
(b) Galactose and Fructose
(c) Galactose and Glucose
(d) None of the above
Answer
**Q.16** Carnitine is a?
(a) Lipid
(b) Protein
(c) Nucleotide
(d) Carbohydrate
Answer
**Q.17** In ATP, the number of high energy rich bonds are?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) None of the above
Answer
**Q.18** Glycolysis takes place in?
(a) Cytoplasm
(b) Chloroplast
(c) Mitochondria
(d) Peroxisomes
Answer
**Q.19** The metal atom present in chlorophyll is?
(a) Zinc
(b) Copper
(c) Manganese
(d) Magnesium
Answer
**Q.20** Which of the following herbicide is recommended to control weeds in clusterbean?
(a) Atrazine
(b) Isoproturon
(c) Emazethapyr
(d) Metsulfuron
Answer
**Q.21** How much Stomp 30 EC is required for 3 ha area if pendimethalin is recommended at 0.75 kg/ha to control weeds in groundnut?
(a) 5.0 kg/ha
(b) 7.5 kg/ha
(c) 8.5 kg/ha
(d) 10.0 kg/ha
Answer
**Q.22** A micro watershed has drainage area of?
(a) <400 ha
(b) 400 – 2000 ha
(c) 4000 ha
(d) 2000 – 4000 ha
Answer
**Q.23** Which of the following is an example of integrated farming system?
(a) Intercropping
(b) Mixed cropping
(c) Crop with dairy
(d) Multiple cropping
Answer
**Q.24** Highest certified area in organic farming lies in the state of?
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Madhya Pradesh
Answer
**Q.25** Soil water measurement is done by?
(a) Lysimeter method
(b) Blaney-Criddle method
(c) Inflow-out flow method
(d) Neutron scattering method
Answer
**Q.26** If an irrigation of 5 cm depth would be applied to wheat and CPE value is 5.55 then what will be IW/CPE ratio for wheat?
(a) 1.0
(b) 0.5
(c) 0.7
(d) 0.9
Answer
**Q.27** Which of the following is an example of integrated nutrient management (INM)?
(a) N+P+Bavistin
(b) Urea + 2,4-D
(c) N+P+K+Zn
(d) Urea + FYM + Biofertilizer
Answer
**Q.28** The botanical name of Popcorn is?
(a) Zea Mays everta
(b) Zea Mays indurata
(c) Zea mays amylacea
(d) Zea mays saccharata
Answer
**Q.29** Pearl millet grain contains?
(a) 1.5 percent fat
(b) 2.0 percent fat
(c) 3.0 percent fat
(d) 5.0 percent fat
Answer
**Q.30** Select the correct sequence of soil water erosion?
(a) Transportation-Detachment-Deposition
(b) Deposition-Detachment-Transportation
(c) Detachment-Transportation-Deposition
(d) None of the above
Answer
**Q.31** Browning or hollow stem of cauliflower is mainly caused by?
(a) Deficiency of boron
(b) Deficiency of copper
(c) Toxicity of molybdenum
(d) Toxicity of Zinc and chlorine
Answer
**Q.32** Plants take most of the phosphorus in the form of?
(a) PO₄³⁻
(b) H₃PO₄
(c) HPO₄²⁻
(d) H₂PO₄⁻
Answer
**Q.33** Adsorption of water by hydrophilic surface is called?
(a) Solonet
(b) Osmosis
(c) Hygration
(d) Hydration
Answer
**Q.34** Azotobacter is a?
(a) VAM fungi
(b) Soil binding agent
(c) Nitrogen fixing bacteria
(d) Phosphorus solubilizing bacteria
Answer
**Q.35** Bulk density is higher in?
(a) Clay soil
(b) Sandy soil
(c) Silt loam soil
(d) Clay loam soil
Answer
**Q.36** Which of the following is a nitrification inhibitor?
(a) N-serve
(b) Thio urea
(c) Neem coated urea
(d) Sulphur coated urea
Answer
**Q.37** Acid soils can be reclaimed by?
(a) Adding lime material
(b) Using basic fertilizers
(c) Growing acid tolerant crops
(d) None of the above
Answer
**Q.38** Phosphorus is necessary for?
(a) Shoot growth
(b) Fungal growth
(c) Bacterial growth
(d) Root development
Answer
**Q.39** At wilting point moisture is retained at?
(a) 5 bars
(b) 1/3 bars
(c) More than 15 bars
(d) Less than 15 bars
Answer
**Q.40** Removal of diseased plants or their affected organs from the field is known as?
(a) Exclusion
(b) Eradication
(c) Protection
(d) Avoidance
Answer
**Q.41** The term ‘Bacteriophage’ was given by?
(a) Lister
(b) Louis Pasteur
(c) Robert Hooke
(d) Twort and Herelle
Answer
**Q.42** Khaira disease in rice is caused due to deficiency of?
(a) Zn
(b) Boron
(c) Calcium
(d) Magnesium
Answer
**Q.43** Genus Phytophthora belongs to order?
(a) Pythiales
(b) Uredinales
(c) Taphrinales
(d) Peronosporales
Answer
**Q.44** Stag head is formed in which disease?
(a) Smut of bajra
(b) Red rot of sugarcane
(c) White rust of mustard
(d) Green ear disease of bajra
Answer
**Q.45** Aphelenchoides besseyi infecting rice was first time described in India from?
(a) Bengal
(b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Madhya Pradesh
Answer
**Q.46** Hewitt et al. (1958) first time established that grapevine fanleaf virus is transmitted by?
(a) Xiphinema index
(b) Trichodorus minor
(c) Longidorus elongatus
(d) Paralongidorus nanus
Answer
**Q.47** The life cycle of seed gall nematode was elucidated by?
(a) Greef
(b) Thorne
(c) Davaine
(d) Roffredi
Answer
**Q.48** Nematodes lip shows?
(a) Asymmetry
(b) Bilateral symmetry
(c) Triradial symmetry
(d) Hexaradial symmetry
Answer
**Q.49** The feeding site ‘nurse cell’ is formed by?
(a) Radopholus similis
(b) Heterodera avenae
(c) Tylenchus semipenetrans
(d) Rotylenchus reniformis
Answer
**Q.50** Atherigona soccata Rondani is a serious pest of?
(a) Cotton
(b) Soybean
(c) Sorghum
(d) Groundnut
Answer
**Q.51** Which of the following order is not of agricultural importance?
(a) Thysanura
(b) Coleoptera
(c) Lepidoptera
(d) Thysanoptera
Answer
**Q.52** India’s first Entomologist was?
(a) Hem Singh Pruthi
(b) Lionel de Niceville
(c) Ramakrishan Ayyar
(d) Harold Maxwell Lefroy
Answer
**Q.53** Siphoning type mouth parts are present in?
(a) Bug
(b) Butterfly
(c) Housefly
(d) Honeybee
Answer
**Q.54** Lepidopterous larva is known as?
(a) Grub
(b) Nymph
(c) Maggot
(d) Caterpillar
Answer
**Q.55** Grassy stunt virus disease of paddy is transmitted by?
(a) Bemisia tabaci
(b) Thrips tabaci
(c) Nilaparvata lugens
(d) Tryporyza incertulus
Answer
**Q.56** Angoumois grain moth belongs to?
(a) Gelechiidae
(b) Curculionidae
(c) Dermestidae
(d) Tenebrionidae
Answer
**Q.57** Bacillus thuringiensis was first isolated from diseased larvae of Ephestia kuniella by?
(a) De Bach, 1958
(b) Fletcher, 1917
(c) Berliner, 1915
(d) Steinhaus, 1949
Answer
**Q.58** Fenvalerate is?
(a) Carbamate
(b) Nicotinoids
(c) Chlorinated hydrocarbon
(d) Synthetic pyrethroids
Answer
**Q.59** Knipling has controlled screw worm fly by?
(a) Antifeedant
(b) Chemosterilant
(c) Moulting hormone
(d) Male sterile technique
Answer
**Q.60** Seed is a?
(a) Mature embryo
(b) Immature embryo
(c) Developed embryo
(d) Undeveloped embryo
Answer
**Q.61** The term heterosis was first used by?
(a) Shull
(b) Punnett
(c) Mendel
(d) Bateson
Answer
**Q.62** Johansen proposed?
(a) Hybridization
(b) Pureline theory
(c) Male sterility
(d) Theory of heterosis
Answer
**Q.63** The production of double cross hybrid in maize was first suggested by?
(a) Hull
(b) East
(c) Shull
(d) Jones
Answer
**Q.64** Complementary gene action produces phenotypic ratio?
(a) 9:7
(b) 13:1
(c) 13:3
(d) 15:1
Answer
**Q.65** If a dihybrid is test crossed, the phenotypic ratio of progeny will be?
(a) 1:1:1:1
(b) 9:3:3:1
(c) 9:6:1
(d) 9:3:4
Answer
**Q.66** A plant bearing both male and female flowers is said to be?
(a) Dioecious
(b) Polygamous
(c) Monoecious
(d) None of the above
Answer
**Q.67** A cybrid?
(a) A sexual hybrid
(b) A plant produced by
(c) A synonym to hybrid
(d) A hybrid formed by cell fusion
Answer
**Q.68** A homozygous line developed by self-pollination in a cross-pollinated crop is termed as?
(a) Mutant
(b) Clone
(c) Inbred
(d) Pure line
Answer
**Q.69** 2n-1 is a?
(a) Trisomic
(b) Alloploid
(c) Tetrasomic
(d) Monosomic
Answer
**Q.70** ‘Naringin’ a bitter taste found in?
(a) Tea
(b) Almond
(c) Grapefruit
(d) Bitter gourd
Answer
**Q.71** Which is the late maturing variety of mango in North India?
(a) Chausa
(b) Langra
(c) Alphonso
(d) Dashehari
Answer
**Q.72** Which vegetable is also known as “Aubergine”?
(a) Okra
(b) Brinjal
(c) Tomato
(d) Muskmelon
Answer
**Q.73** Which variety of onion is suitable for dehydration purpose?
(a) N-53
(b) Pusa Red
(c) Arka Bindu
(d) Pusa White Flat
Answer
**Q.74** In which crop, the inflorescence type is ‘panicle’?
(a) Pea
(b) Taro
(c) Okra
(d) Drumstick
Answer
**Q.75** The maximum ‘K’ found vegetable crop is?
(a) Garlic
(b) Potato
(c) Spinach
(d) Colocasia
Answer
**Q.76** What is the maturity index for Avocado?
(a) TSS
(b) Oil content
(c) Acid content
(d) Sugar content
Answer
**Q.77** Which product contains 40% fruit juice and 50% TSS?
(a) Crush
(b) Cordial
(c) Chutney
(d) Preserve
Answer
**Q.78** The dried winter season annual flower is?
(a) Pansy
(b) Helichrysum
(c) Sweet sultan
(d) Chrysanthemum
Answer
**Q.79** Which flower is also known as Blanket flower?
(a) Gaillardia
(b) Ice plant
(c) Cock’s Comb
(d) Sweet sultan
Answer
**Q.80** Gestation period of goat is?
(a) 140 days
(b) 150 days
(c) 160 days
(d) 170 days
Answer
**Q.81** Karan Swiss breed of cattle was developed at?
(a) Hisar
(b) Anand
(c) Karnal
(d) Ludhiana
Answer
**Q.82** White scours usually occurs in?
(a) Calves
(b) Heifers
(c) Lactating cow
(d) Pregnant cow
Answer
**Q.83** Magra is a breed of?
(a) Goat
(b) Horse
(c) Cattle
(d) Sheep
Answer
**Q.84** Milk fever occurs due to?
(a) Deficiency of milk in calves
(b) Cessation of milk production
(c) Deficiency of calcium in cow
(d) Deficiency of calcium in milk
Answer
**Q.85** Bellowing is usually experienced during?
(a) Insemination
(b) Mid heat
(c) Early heat
(d) Late heat
Answer
**Q.86** Brucellosis is caused by?
(a) Virus
(b) Bacteria
(c) Protozoa
(d) Nematode
Answer
**Q.87** Mastitis is infection of?
(a) Teat
(b) Genitalia
(c) Nasal passage
(d) Alimentary tract
Answer
**Q.88** Open area in housing system refers to?
(a) Sloppy area
(b) Covered area
(c) Uncovered area
(d) Ventilated area
Answer
**Q.89** Gizzard is the part of alimentary tract of?
(a) Hen
(b) Doe
(c) Cow
(d) Buffalo
Answer
**Q.90** If the price is fixed below the equilibrium price there would be?
(a) Equilibrium
(b) Excess supply
(c) Excess demand
(d) Downward pressure on prices
Answer
**Q.91** The central banking functions in India are performed by the?
(a) Both and
(b) Central bank
(c) State bank of India
(d) Reserve Bank of India
Answer
**Q.92** In analysis of the farm business depreciation should be considered as?
(a) A fixed cost
(b) Operating cost
(c) A variable cost
(d) An opportunity cost
Answer
**Q.93** At present, highest contribution of GDP (%) is from?
(a) Industry
(b) Services
(c) Livestock
(d) Agriculture
Answer
**Q.94** Maximum contribution in Agricultural finance is from?
(a) RRBs
(b) Commercial banks
(c) Cooperative Banks
(d) Non-banking financial institutions
Answer
**Q.95** Elasticity of production is zero at the end of production of classical production function?
(a) First stage
(b) Third stage
(c) At any stage
(d) Second stage
Answer
**Q.96** Following table shows increase in production in 10 fields in a year due to better management?
Increase in production (qtls) | 2 | 3 | 4
Number of fields | 5 | 3 | 2
(a) 2.7
(b) 3.0
(c) 3.3
(d) 4.0
Answer
**Q.97** If linear relation exists between the variables x and y, then the coefficient of correlation between them will be?
(a) One
(b) Zero
(c) Infinite
(d) None of the above
Answer
**Q.98** For the two variables x and y:
X: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Y: 10 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1
(a) Coefficient of correlation and regression will be same
(b) Coefficient of correlation and regression will be same but with opposite sign
(c) Coefficient of correlation will be 10 times of coefficient of regression
(d) Coefficient of regression will be 10 times of coefficient of correlation
Answer
**Q.99** We want to test the hypothesis that the population of a city has a specified mean µ0, Null hypothesis is H0 : µ = µ0, with alternative hypothesis?
(i) H1 : µ ≠ µ0
(ii) H1 : µ < µ0
(iii) H1 : µ > µ0
Which of the above will be two-tailed test of hypothesis
(a) Only (i)
(b) Only (ii)
(c) Only (iii)
(d) All of the above
Answer
**Q.100** Which of the following programme has the mandate of refinement of technologies?
(a) IVLP
(b) ATIC
(c) HYVP
(d) PMRY
Answer
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