1. A sequence qualifies for 'patent' if it is
a. An intron
b. A functional gene in a vector
c. EST
d. Amplicon amplified
2. The gene rich region of a chromosome is
a. Centromere
b. Euchromatin
c. Heterochromatin
d. Satellite region
3. Which of these mutagens is a base analogue
a. NMU
b. 5-Bromo uracil
c. EMS
d. MMS
4. TILLING technology uses
a. Ethidium bromide
b. Acridine dyes
c. EMS
d. MMS
5. What is the approximate size (in Mb) of the rice genome?
a. 200 Mb
b. 430 Mb
c. 510 Mb
d. 700 Mb
6. Chemicals that enhance uptake of DNA by plant protoplasts
a. SDS
b. Polyvinyl pyrrolidine
c. NaOH
d. PEG
7. Which of the following is a tool available for primer designing
a. QTL cartographer
b. Join map
c. Map maker
d. Gene tool
8. Nucleosome core consists of two molecules each of:
a. H2A, H2B, H3, H4
b. H1,H2A, H2B, H3
c. H3 & H4
d. H2A, H2B H3.
9. The best marker to analyse the quantitative traits is
a. RAPD
b. SSR
c. AFLP
d. SCAR
10. The best molecular procedure for amelioration of the defects of the variety are
a. MAS
b. MABB
c. AFLP
d. SCAR
11. A bivalent of metaphase-I consists of
a. Two chromatids and two centromeres
b. Two chromatids and one centromere
c. Four chromatids and one centromere
d. Four chromatids and two centromeres
12. In a Mendelian population, the frequency of A=0.8, the genotypic frequencies will be
a. 0.64AA+0.32Aa+0.04aa
b. 0.7AA+0.2Aa+0.1aa
c. 0.6AA+0.3Aa+0.1aa
d. 0.55AA+0.35Aa+0.20aa
13. In C value, C represents the amount of DNA present in ____ cell
a. Haploid
b. Diploid
c. Triploid
d. Tetraploid
14. The number of sperms produced from 100 primary spermatocytes
a. 100
b. 400
c. 1000
d. 4000
15. If a cell has 10 chromosomes _____ number of sister chromatids are visible during telophase?
a. 0
b. 10
c. 20
d. 40
16. The cell cycle is regulated by check points during ____ phases.
a. G1, S and G2
b. G1, S and M
c. G1, G2 and M
d. G1, S, G2 and M
17. Non disjunction of chromosomes means
a. Failure of chromosomes to separate during mitosis
b. Failure of the cells to separate
c. Failure of chromosomes or sister chromatids to separate during meiosis
d. Failure of chromosomes or sister chromatids to separate during mitosis
18. A normal human cell that is not dividing will contain ____ chromosomes. These chromosomes will each consist of ____ chromatids.
a. 46:1
b. 46:2
c. 23:1
d. 23:2
19. A mother with 'O' Blood group had a child with O blood group, then blood group of father would be ____ blood group
a. A
b. A, B, AB, O
c. O
d. AB
20. The three degenerating megaspores of plants can be compared with that of ____ of oogenesis.
a. Secondary oocyte
b. Primary oocyte
c. Polar bodies
d. Ootid
21. The main source of trisomics
a. Tetraploids
b. Triploids
c. Haploids
d. Irradiation treatment
22. In rice the number of secondary trisomics possible is
a. 24
b. 48
c. 12
d. 36
23. The genetic control of chromosome pairing during meiosis in wheat is due to
a. Ph1 gene on 5BS
b. Ph1 gene on 5BL
c. Ph1 gene on 1BS
d. Ph1 gene on 1BS
24. Breakage bridge fusion cycle is observed in
a. Duplications
b. Deletions
c. Inversions
d. Translocations
25. Heterosis is maximized when
a. [+h] and >[l] are present
b. ra=−1 and rd=0
c. +[h] and −[l] are present
d. ra=n=1
26. If overdominance is the major cause of heterosis the breeding approach should be to develop
a. Purelines
b. Synthetics
c. Hybrids
d. Varieties
27. The XYZ system of male-sterility is used for hybrid seed production in
a. Barley
b. Wheat
c. Sorghum
d. Bajra
28. If F2 heterosis is greater than F1 heterosis, it is indicative of
a. Linkage
b. Maternal effects
c. Interaction
d. Pleiotropy
29. Linkage of directionally dominant genes acts as the most potential source of
a. Migration
b. Additive effect
c. Linkage bias
d. Genetic drift
30. In AA x aa =Aa we suspect
a. Heterosis
b. Additivity
c. Overdominance
d. Gene interaction
31. An essential requirement for a line to be converted in to a male-sterile line is that, it should be
a. Partially fertile
b. A restorer
c. Partially sterile
d. A maintainer
32. High heterosis levels in rice are observed in crosses between
a. Indica X indica
b. Indica X japonica
c. Japonica X japonica
d. Japonica X javanica
33. Estimates of D and H are inflated or deflated due to the presence of
a. Linkage
b. Genes
c. Phenotype
d. Proteins
34. The "composition of a field of maize", a classical paper laying the foundations of heterosis was by
a. Hull
b. Mendel
c. Shull
d. Bruce
35. Genetically very diverse inbred lines may not show heterosis up on crossing because of
a. Inbreeding depression
b. Epistasis
c. Outbreeding depression
d. Under dominance
36. Heterosis breeding can be done using the phenomenon of sex reversal in
a. Sunflower
b. Papaya
c. Maize
d. Castor
37. An inbred line, homozygous dominant at all loci may not be heterotic at some loci as per the theory of
a. Over-dominance
b. Dominance
c. Epistasis
d. Additivity
38. The term used in sugarcane breeding to denote the crossing of Saccharum officinarum with related species followed by one or more back crosses is called:
a. Mass selection
b. Crossing over
c. Cane Improvement
d. Nobilisation
39. The segregation of individuals in the F2 or in a later generation of a cross, which shows a more extreme development of a character than either parent is termed as:
a. Hybridization
b. Heterosis
c. Linkage
d. Transgressive segregates 
40. The best method to carry forward the maximum number of genotypes/genes to the advanced generations against the force of natural selection is:
a. Pedigree method
b. Bulk method
c. Single seed descent method
d. Back cross method
41. The components of synthetic population would have already been tested for:
a. SCA
b. Genetic advance
c. GCA
d. Both GCA & SCA
42. The production of double cross hybrid in Maize was first suggested by:
a. Shull
b. East
c. Jones
d. Hull
43. Specific combining ability of the parents should be high in order to develop:
a. Hybrids
b. Composites
c. Varieties
d. Synthetics
44. The best method to break the unfavourable linkage is
a. Single seed descent method
b. Diallel selective mating
c. Pedigree method
d. Bulk method
45. Multiline varieties are mixtures of:
a. Several morphologically different plants having identical disease resistance genes
b. Bulked progenies of different inbred lines
c. Several similar pure lines having different genes for disease resistance
d. Morphologically identical plants with different genetic make-up
46. Quarantine is
a. The name of a plant
b. The name of a character
c. The process of observation of alien material
d. Name of a weed
47. Rice varieties IR 20, IR 26 and IR 36 have shown better resistance to
a. Tungro
b. Bacterial leaf blight
c. Blast
d. Brown plant hopper
48. Heritability may be defined as the:
a. Interaction product of genotype with environment
b. Sum total of hereditary material present in a species
c. Degree of resemblance among progenies
d. Proportion of phenotypic variability, which is due to heredity
49. Which sterility is exploited in hybrid seed production in Pearl millet?
a. Male genetic sterility
b. Cytoplasmic sterility
c. Cytoplasmic genetic male sterility
d. Genetic
50. In which one of the following crops maximum exploitation of hybrid vigour during the last three decades has been done?
a. Wheat
b. Rice
c. Maize
d. Cotton
51. Mating between two individuals related by descent is
a. Selfing
b. Inbreeding
c. Outbreeding
d. Maintenance of population
52. Double helix DNA condenses into chromatin fiber to facilitate
a. Perfect transfer of DNA from parents to offspring
b. To transcribe DNA whenever required
c. To accommodate the DNA molecule which is longer than size of the cells
d. RNA to translate
53. Primers are not required for DNA transcription because
a. Process is simple
b. Only part of DNA is used
c. DNA polymerase accomplishes De novo synthesis
d. RNA polymerase accomplishes De novo synthesis
54. Without sigma factors the bacterial RNA is an orphan and an aimless wanderer because
a. Enzyme becomes small
b. Enzyme becomes too large
c. Enzyme does not recognize proper binding site
d. Enzyme looses synthesis ability
55. Wobble Hypothesis explains
a. Why multiple codons can code for a single amino acid
b. Why codon are triplet
c. Why codons are universal
d. Why codons are more in number than amino acids
56. Which sub unit of rRNA first initiates to formates formation of replication unit
a. Both sub units together
b. Small sub unit
c. Large sub unit
d. rRNA
57. The action of ultraviolet radiation on DNA to induce mutation is the
a. Formation of thymine dimers
b. Methylation of base pairs
c. Deletion of base pairs
d. Addition of base pairs
58. Normally DNA molecule has A-T, G-C pairing, however these bases can exist in alternative valency status, owing to rearrangements called
a. Point mutation
b. Frame shift mutation
c. Analogue substitution
d. Tautomerizational mutation
59. X rays causes mutation by
a. Deletion
b. Transition
c. Transversion
d. Base substitution
60. Muller was first to produce induced mutations in
a. Paramecium
b. Arabidopsis
c. Drosophila
d. Xenopus
61. Crop improvement can utilize which of the following mutations?
a. Lethal
b. Sublethal
c. Subvital
d. Vital
62. The frequency of n-1 type of pollen by selfing of a monosomics is
a. 96%
b. 94%
c. 84%
d. 82%
63. The seven characters in Pea studied by Mendel is assigned to
a. 2 linkage groups
b. 3 linkage groups
c. 7 linkage groups
d. 4 linkage groups
64. The test cross ratio in Masking gene action is
a. 2:1:1
b. 1:1:1:1
c. 9:3:4
d. 3:1
65. If an F1 with genotypic constitution AABBccDD is subjected to selfing the average proportion of alleles from first parent in F4 generation is given by
a. 2n−1/2n
b. (2n−1)/2n−1
c. (2n−1)/2n
d. 0.5
66. If there are allelic frequency differences in sexes and the gene is situated on an autosome a disequilibrium population requires how many generations of random mating to attain equilibrium?
a. 1
b. 2
c. infinity
d. 10
67. When an F1 is segregating for large number of loci, the population of F6 generation can best be described as
a. Homogygous and heterogenous
b. Heterozygous and homogenous
c. Nearly homogygous and homogenous
d. Nearly heterzygous and homogenous
68. Relationship between selection differential(S) and selection intensity(i) is
a. S=i/R
b. R=iS
c. i=S/Vp
d. S=i/p
69. Additive variance is the variance of
a. Additive effects
b. Interaction of additive effects
c. Breeding values
d. Sum of variance of additive effects
70. Narrow sense heritability is equal to
a. rAP
b. rPA
c. bAP
d. bPA
71. Number of double cross combinations possible with 8 inbreds
a. 64
b. 28
c. 120
d. 210

72. Number of three way combinations possible with 8 inbreds
a. 268
b. 168
c. 186
d. 286
73. Ratio of observed to expected double cross over frequencies is called as
a. Coefficient of coincidence
b. Coefficient of interference
c. Linkage
d. Interference
74. RNA polymerase always binds to
a. Regulator
b. Operator
c. Promoter
d. Terminator
75. Cri-du-chat syndrome is due to deletion in
a. Short arm of X chromosome
b. Long arm of X chromosome
c. Short arm of 5th chromosome
d. Long arm of 5th chromosome
76. In case of translocation heterozygotes which of the following results in production 100% fertile gametes
a. Adjacent I separation
b. Adjacent II separation
c. Alternate separation
d. Both adjacent & alternate separation
77. Pollens are usually released in
a. Uninuclete stage
b. Binucleate stage
c. Trinucleate stage
d. Tetra-nucleate stage
78. Breeding value of a genotype is
a. Equal to general combining ability (GCA
b. Twice the GCA
c. Three times of GCA
d. Four times of GCA
79. Covariance of half-sibs is equal to
a. One-half of additive genetic variance
b. Three-fourths of additive genetic variance
c. One-quarter of additive genetic variance
d. Equal to additive genetic variance
80. The extent of expected genetic gain for a quantitative trait (QT) is a function of
a. Heritability of QT
b. Intensity of selection for QT
c. Variation for QT
d. Heritability, variation & intensity of selection for QT
81. Triple test cross design is an extension of
a. North Carolina Design 3
b. North Carolina Design 1
c. North Carolina Design 2
d. Diallel mating design
82. Joint-scaling test enables
a. Examining the adequacy of additive-dominance (A-D) model
b. Examining the adequacy of A-D & di-genic epistasis model
c. Examining the adequacy of A-D model and estimating additive and dominance gene effects
d. Examining di-genic epistatic model only
83. Parameters to assess performance stability of a genotype in Eberhart and Russel model
a. Regression of trait means on environmental indices (b.)
b. Deviation from b. (S2di)
c. b & S2d
d. Variation attributable to non-genetic sources
84. Genetic variation among stabilized recombinant inbred lines is entirely contributed by
a. Additive and dominance genetic effects
b. Additive genetic effects
c. Additive and additive x additive genetic effects
d. Dominance genetic effects
85. Proportion of complete homozygotes in a trihybrid F2
a. 2/64
b. 4/64
c. 16/64
d. 8/64
86. Cis-trans complementation test is to detect
a. Allelism
b. Dominance
c. Linkage
d. Crossing over

87. Mutation GAT to GTG is referred as
a. Miss sense mutation
b. Non sense mutation
c. Frame shift
d. Promoter
88. Which of the following estimate based on regression analysis
a. D2 analysis
b. Analysis of variance
c. Path analysis
d. analysis of covariance
89. Environment induced change in the genetic material without change in base pairs is
a. Epigenetic effect
b. Extra chromosomal inheritance
c. Gene silencing
d. Gene shuffling
90. If the allele inherited from the father is silenced and only the allele from the mother is expressed is referred as
a. Gene silencing
b. Gene imprinting
c. Gene over expression
d. Epigenetic expression
91. Phenotype of the heterozygote lies outside the phenotypical range of both homozygous parents is referred as
a. Transgression
b. Over dominance
c. Ephemeral expression
d. Hyper Dominance
92. Within a population of butterflies, the color brown (B) is dominant over the color white (b. And, 40% of all butterflies are white. The percentage of butterflies in the population those are heterozygous
a. 0.37
b. 0.63
c. 0.47
d. 0.50
93. D2 statistics is used to estimate
a. Combing ability
b. Heterosis
c. Inbreeding depression
d. Genetic divergence
94. Combing ability of inbreds can be estimated by
a. D2 analysis
b. Diallel analysis
c. Stability analysis
d. F test
95. A mating among the following cannot lead to heterosis
a. Aabbx aaBB
b. AABBccdd x aabbCCDD
c. AABBccDD x aabbccdd
d. aaBBcc x AAbbCC
96. In a Wr-Vr graph of diallel analysis, when the regress line passes through the origin it indicates
a. Complete dominance
b. Partial dominance
c. Over dominance
d. No dominance
97. Line X Tester analysis was developed by
a. Jinks and jone
b. Hayman
c. Kempthorne
d. Eberhart and Russel
98. In a stability analysis, the genotype is highly stable when regression coefficient is equal to
a. >1
b. 0.1
c. 1.0
d. < 1.0
99. In White eye color in drosophila is recessive to red eye color. If white eyed female is crossed to red eyed male, what percent of male will have white eye?
a. 100
b. 75
c. 50
d. 0
100. August Weismann proposed
a. Cell lineage theory
b. Germplasm theory
c. Wobble hypothesis
d. Theory of acquired characters