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ARS NET 2023 Genetics and Plant Breeding - (PYQ)




Question 1:

A set of closely linked genes that determine the optimal phenotype is known as:
A. Gene cluster
B. Operon
C. Super gene
D. Linkage group
Correct Answer: C. Super gene


Question 2:

Multivalent formation in wheat is due to:
A. Trisomics
B. Monosomics
C. Nullisomics
D. Totasomics
Correct Answer: C. Nullisomics (Chromosome Five B)


Question 3:

The state with the highest pulse production:
A. Madhya Pradesh
B. Uttar Pradesh
C. Rajasthan
D. Maharashtra
Correct Answer: A. Madhya Pradesh (MP)


Question 4:

The crop domesticated after the wheat:
A. Barley
B. Potato
C. Rice
D. Maize
Correct Answer: A. Barley


Question 5:

The potato tuber moth was introduced from:
A. South America
B. Europe
C. Italy
D. Africa
Correct Answer: C. Italy


Question 6:

Shoot fly, fruit borer, jassids, and spider mites are major insects of:
A. Bhindi (Okra)
B. Tomato
C. Cucumber
D. Brinjal
Correct Answer: A. Bhindi (Okra)


Question 7:

A telomere is present in:
A. Protein
B. RNA
C. Lipid
D. DNA
Correct Answer: D. DNA


Question 8:

The initial framework of biometrics was developed by:
A. Gregor John Mendel
B. R.A. Fisher
C. Sewall Wright
D. J.B.S. Haldane
Correct Answer: B. R.A. Fisher


Question 9:

Generation Mean Analysis follows as:
A. First Order Statistics
B. Second Order Statistics
C. Third Order Statistics
D. Zero Order Statistics
Correct Answer: A. First Order Statistics


Question 10:

Diallel analysis was developed by:
A. Mather
B. Allard
C. Jinks
D. Gardner
Correct Answer: C. Jinks


Question 11:

Half diallel allows the parent to be:
A. Only self-compatible
B. Only male fertile
C. Self-incompatible and male sterile
D. Only cross-compatible
Correct Answer: C. Self-incompatible and male sterile


Question 12:

The system that allows F1 hybridity and is regularly used for the electro process is:
A. DNA fingerprinting
B. Microsatellite marker
C. SNP marker
D. RFLP marker 
Correct Answer: D. RFLP marker 


Question 13:

The most informative mapping population is:
A. F2
B. Backcross
C. RILs (Recombinant Inbred Lines)
D. F2 DP (Double Haploid  F2)
Correct Answer: C. RILs (Recombinant Inbred Lines)


Question 14:

The backcross method is used to:
A. Create F1
B. Develop pure line
C. Isolate isogenic line
D. Study gene interaction
Correct Answer: C. Isolate isogenic line


Question 15:

Guide RNA is made of:
A. mRNA or tRNA
B. RNA and mRNA
C. tracrRNA and mRNA
D. tracrRNA and crRNA
Correct Answer: D. tracrRNA and crRNA


Question 16:

A cytologist locates a gene on a chromosome by studying the:
A. DNA sequence
B. Protein expression
C. Banding pattern in the chromosome
D. Gene function
Correct Answer: C. Banding pattern in the chromosome


Question 17:

RNAi (RNA interference) is a short RNA that regulates gene expression by combining with:
A. DNA
B. mRNA
C. tRNA
D. Protein
Correct Answer: B. mRNA


Question 18:

DNA Polymerase First has:
A. 3' to 5' exonuclease activity
B. 5' to 3' polymerase activity
C. 5' to 3' exonuclease activity
D. Ligase activity
Correct Answer: C. 5' to 3' exonuclease activity


Question 19:

ALU1 is a restriction endonuclease enzyme that produces:
A. Sticky ends
B. Overhangs
C. Blunt ends
D. Single-stranded breaks
Correct Answer: C. Blunt ends


Question 20:

SSR (Simple Sequence Repeat) markers are scorable markers that are:
A. Least commonly used
B. Moderately used
C. Most commonly used
D. Not used in plant breeding
Correct Answer: C. Most commonly used


Question 21:

Starting from DNA sequence and moving towards the phenotype is known as:
A. Forward Genetics
B. Reverse Genetics
C. Quantitative Genetics
D. Molecular Genetics
Correct Answer: B. Reverse Genetics


Question 22:

Transgressive segregants are recovered in the:
A. Bulk method
B. Single Seed Descent method
C. Pedigree method
D. Mass Selection
Correct Answer: C. Pedigree method


Question 23:

Anther culture is a method related to recovering haploid plants:
A. In vivo propagation
B. In vitro
C. In situ
D. Ex vivo
Correct Answer: B. In vitro


Question 24:

Cytoplasmic Male Sterility (CMS) is:
A. Not used in plant breeding
B. Artificially induced
C. Commercially used
D. Found only in animals
Correct Answer: C. Commercially used


Question 25:

SNP (Single Nucleotide Polymorphism) is what generation marker:
A. First generation marker
B. Second generation marker
C. Third generation marker
D. Not a molecular marker
Correct Answer: C. Third generation marker


Question 26:

LXT is given by 
A. Mather and Jinks
B. Kearsey and Mather
C. Kempthrone
D. Falconer and Mackay
Correct Answer: C. Kempthrone 1957


Question 27:

The Watson and Crick model was supported by:
A. Mendel and Morgan
B. Sutton and Boveri
C. Wilkins, Franklin and Chargaff
D. Avery, MacLeod and McCarty
Correct Answer: C. Wilkins, Franklin and Chargaff


Question 28:

If 40 units of DNA are present in the G1 phase, then there will be how many units after meiosis I:
A. 10 units
B. 20 units
C. 40 units
D. 80 units
Correct Answer: C. 40 units


Question 29:

Statement 1: The CDC genes are present in cells differing from alive cells.
Statement 2: CDC mutants block the expression of the cell division cycle at a specific stage.
A. Statement 1 is correct
B. Statement 2 is correct
C. Both statements are correct
D. Both statements are incorrect
Correct Answer: B. Statement 2 is correct


Question 30:

Different types of pathogens that attack during a course of time are called:
A. Biotypes
B. Races
C. Virulence gene
D. Physiological races
Correct Answer: D. Physiological races


Question 31:

Leaf rolling, delayed deep root system, and erect leaves are characteristics of:
A. Disease resistance
B. Insect resistance
C. Drought resistance
D. Herbicide resistance
Correct Answer: C. Drought resistance


Question 32:

The Boom and Bust cycle was given by:
A. Vander Plank
B. Watson
C. Borlaug
D. Allard
Correct Answer: A. Vander Plank


Question 33:

The Flavr Savr gene was introduced for:
A. Increased yield
B. Herbicide tolerance
C. Increased shelf life
D. Insect resistance
Correct Answer: C. Increased shelf life


Question 34:

The VR and WR graph is used for:
A. Estimating heritability
B. Covariance between parent and offspring
C. Predicting hybrid performance
D. Analyzing genotype × environment interaction
Correct Answer: B. Covariance between parent and offspring


Question 35:

The Diallel Selective Mating System includes:
A. Diallel mating only
B. Selective mating only
C. Diallel and Selective mating 
D. Random mating and selection
Correct Answer: C. Diallel and Selective mating 


Question 36:

The Seed Act came under the rule in:
A. 1952
B. 1966
C. 1971
D. 1985
Correct Answer: B. 1966


Question 37:

Acetosyringone is a toxin secreted at the wounded site of plants by:
A. Fungi
B. Viruses
C. Agrobacterium
D. Insects
Correct Answer: C. Agrobacterium


Question 38:

Thiram and Agrosan Ceresan are:
A. Insecticides used for seed treatment
B. Herbicides used for weed control
C. Fungicides for surface sterilization
D. Plant Growth Regulators
Correct Answer: C. Fungicides for surface sterilization


Question 39:

Kosambi's distance is a mapping function that includes:
A. No interference
B. Positive interference
C. Negative interference
D. Complete interference
Correct Answer: B. Positive interference


Question 40:

NSC (National Seed Corporation) was established in:
A. 1960
B. 1961
C. 1963
D. 1965
Correct Answer: C. 1963


Question 41:

The color of breeder, foundation, and certified seed is respectively:
A. White, Golden yellow, Azure blue
B. Golden yellow, Azure blue, White
C. Golden yellow, White, Azure blue
D. Azure blue, White, Golden yellow
Correct Answer: C. Golden yellow, White, Azure blue


Question 42:

Cotton has a germination percentage of:
A. 40%
B. 50%
C. 60%
D. 70%
Correct Answer: C. 60%


Question 43:

Breeding by Design is the methodology that involves:
A. Traditional breeding methods
B. Marker assisted selection
C. In silico making of genes and desirable products
D. Wild hybridization
Correct Answer: C. In silico making of genes and desirable products


Question 44:

Which of the following has the highest protein content:
A. Rice
B. Wheat
C. Maize
D. Oat
Correct Answer: D. Oat


Question 45:

Rice carbohydrate content is approximately:
A. 40%
B. 50%
C. 60%
D. 70%
Correct Answer: D. 70%


Question 46:

Kent, Ridley, IR8 are varieties of:
A. Wheat
B. Rice
C. Barley
D. Maize
Correct Answer: C. Barley


Question 47:

A large number of germplasm are evaluated using which method:
A. CRD (Completely Randomized Design)
B. RBD (Randomized Block Design)
C. Augmented Design
D. Split Plot Design
Correct Answer: C. Augmented Design


Question 48:

The sum of squares of RBD compared to CRD is lower due to the removal of:
A. Treatment variation
B. Error variation
C. Block variation
D. Total variation
Correct Answer: C. Block variation


Question 49:

When the plot design is a perfect square and the number of treatments is the square root of the number of plots, the design is:
A. CRD
B. RBD
C. Latin Square Design
D. Factorial Design
Correct Answer: C. Latin Square Design


Question 50:

Single cross will result in:
A. Maximum heterozygosity and heterogeneity
B. Minimum heterozygosity and homozygosity
C. Maximum heterozygosity and homogeneity
D. Minimum heterozygosity and heterogeneity
Correct Answer: C. Maximum heterozygosity and homogeneity


Question 51:

Loops and Puffs are methods of:
A. DNA replication
B. Protein synthesis
C. RNA synthesis
D. Mutation induction
Correct Answer: C. RNA synthesis


Question 52:

The Cartagena Protocol deals with:
A. Climate change
B. Biodiversity conservation
C. Biosafety
D. Intellectual Property Rights
Correct Answer: C. Biosafety


Question 53:

Dicliny and Dichogamy are present in:
A. Wheat
B. Rice
C. Maize
D. Soybean
Correct Answer: C. Maize


Question 54:

Ghost Gene Hypothesis refers to a gene that:
A. Is completely silent
B. Has a major phenotypic effect
C. Has no apparent phenotypic effect on its own but modifies the expression of another gene
D. Is only expressed under specific environmental conditions
Correct Answer: C. Has no apparent phenotypic effect on its own but modifies the expression of another gene


Question 55:

The Chi-square test gives a hypothesis about:
A. Correlation
B. Regression
C. Goodness of Fit
D. Variance
Correct Answer: C. Goodness of Fit


Question 56:

Agrobacterium mediated transfer involves integration of T-DNA into the host genome. How does the Particle Gun method deposit the target gene into the genotype?
A. Also integrate T-DNA
B. Uses viral vector
C. Physical delivery of DNA into cell
D. Is limited to chloroplast transformation
Correct Answer: C. Physical delivery of DNA into cell


Question 57:

A Complementary Ratio is:
A. 9:3:3:1
B. 3:1
C. 9:7
D. 15:1
Correct Answer: C. 9:7


Question 58:

The Hybrid Complementary Ratio for a test cross is:
A. 1:1:1:1
B. 1:1
C. 1:3
D. 3:1
Correct Answer: A. 1:1:1:1


Question 59:

Statement 1: There is linkage between the stem length gene and the pod shape.
Statement 2: Mendel did not study stem length and pod shape.
A. Statement 1 is correct
B. Statement 2 is correct
C. Both statements are correct
D. Both statements are incorrect
Correct Answer: C. Both statements are correct


Question 60:

Victoria Blight in oats and Mutation breeding followed by EMS (Ethyl Methane Sulfonate) are examples of:
A. Both are examples of induced mutagenesis
B. Disease resistant breeding and gene silencing respectively
C. Disease resistant breeding and induced mutagenesis respectively
D. Both are examples of disease resistant breeding
Correct Answer: C. Disease resistant breeding and induced mutagenesis respectively


Question 61:

Vernalization can be induced by:
A. High temperature
B. Low temperature
C. High humidity
D. Long photoperiod
Correct Answer: B. Low temperature


Question 62:

The number of phenotypic classes obtained in a three-point test cross with three linked genes:
A. Four
B. Six
C. Eight
D. Sixteen
Correct Answer: C. Eight


Question 63:

The number of phenotypic classes obtained when three genes segregate semi-dominantly and the trait is quantitative:
A. Eight
B. Nine
C. Six
D. Sixteen
E. Twenty-seven
Correct Answer: E. Twenty-seven


Question 64:

Statement 1: The SAT (Satellite) DNA has a secondary constriction.
Statement 2: SAT DNA is located in the SAT chromosome.
A. Statement 1 is correct
B. Statement 2 is correct
C. Both statements are correct
D. Both statements are incorrect
Correct Answer: C. Both statements are correct


Question 65:

The Tobacco Mosaic Virus was induced into the plants for introducing:
A. Increased growth
B. Herbicide tolerance
C. Cross protection
D. Systemic acquired resistance
Correct Answer: C. Cross protection


Question 66:

The number of secondary trisomics in maize:
A. 10
B. 12
C. 20
D. 24
Correct Answer: A. 10


Question 67:

A physical map represents:
A. Order of genes on chromosome
B. Recombination frequency between genes
C. Number of base pairs between genetic markers
D. Location of centromeres and telomeres
Correct Answer: C. Number of base pairs between genetic markers


Question 68:

RFLP (Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism) is used in:
A. Pedigree analysis
B. Linkage mapping only
C. Comparative and Synteny study
D. Variety identification
Correct Answer: C. Comparative and Synteny study


Question 69:

Photoreaction-caused dimer is reversed by:
A. DNA Polymerase
B. DNA Ligase
C. Photolyase enzyme
D. Restriction Enzyme
Correct Answer: C. Photolyase enzyme 


Question 70:

Rice genes Xa21, Xa5, and Xa3 are introgressed using:
A. Traditional breeding methods
B. Pedigree selection
C. Molecular markers ( STS)
D. Mutation Breeding
Correct Answer: C. STS (Sequence Tagged Sites) markers


Question 71:

Pusa Jai Kisan is the somaclonal variation of:
A. Wheat
B. Rice
C. Mustard
D. Tomato
Correct Answer: C. Mustard


Question 72:

Molecular marker technology has increased the efficiency of:
A. Mass Selection method
B. Bulk method
C. Backcross method
D. Single Seed Descent method
Correct Answer: C. Backcross method


Question 73:

Recurrent Selection is the method that involves:
A. Crossing of the superior individuals only once
B. Selection in early generation followed by the intercrossing
C. Re-selection of the self-pollinated plants over the generation
D. Hybridization between the distantly related species
Correct Answer: C. Re-selection of the self-pollinated plants over the generation


Question 74:

The Pedigree method utilizes considerable:
A. Natural Selection
B. Random Mating
C. Artificial Selection
D. No Selection
Correct Answer: C. Artificial Selection


Question 75:

GI (Geographical Indication) tag is included in the:
A. Conventional Biology Diversity
B. TRIPS (Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights) agreement under the WTO
C. Plant Variety Protection Act
D. Seed Act
Correct Answer: B. TRIPS (Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights) agreement under the WTO


Question 76:

The terms Recon, Muton, and Cistron were given by:
A. Seymour and Benzer
B. Jacob and Monod
C. Watson and Crick
D. Barbara McClintock
Correct Answer: A. Seymour and Benzer


Question 77:

If X1 and X2 are variables affected by a common variable (X3), this is called:
A. Positive correlation
B. Negative correlation
C. Spurious correlation
D. Partial correlation
Correct Answer: C. Spurious correlation


Question 78:

D -square Statistics is:
A. Univariate Statistics
B. Bivariate Statistics
C. Non-parametric Statistics
D. Multivariate Statistics
Correct Answer: D. Multivariate Statistics


Question 79:

The Transcription enzyme is:
A. DNA dependent DNA polymerase
B. RNA dependent RNA polymerase
C. DNA dependent RNA polymerase
D. RNA dependent DNA polymerase (Reverse Transcriptase)
Correct Answer: C. DNA dependent RNA polymerase


Question 80:

Generation Mean Analysis is:
A. First Order Statistics
B. Second Order Statistics
C. Third Order Statistics
D. Zero Order Statistics
Correct Answer: A. First Order Statistics


Question 81:

(L x T)Linkage x Transmission Disequilibrium can be used to estimate:
A. Linkage only
B. Transmission Disequilibrium only
C. QTL (Quantitative Trait Loci) effect and location
D. Epistasis
Correct Answer: C. QTL (Quantitative Trait Loci) effect and location


Question 82:

Hairy Root Disease is induced by:
A. Agrobacterium tumefaciens
B. Agrobacterium rhizogenes
C. Erwinia
D. Xanthomonas oryzae
Correct Answer: B. Agrobacterium rhizogenes


Question 83:

Elite Derived Varieties (EDVs) are produced from:
A. Pedigree method
B. Polyploidy Breeding
C. Mutation Breeding
D. Hybridization
Correct Answer: A. Pedigree method


Question 84:

The SSR ratio for heterozygotes and homozygotes assuming co-dominance and a single locus with two alleles in a segregating population is:
A. 1:1
B. 2:1
C. 1:2:1
D. 1:1:1
Correct Answer: C. 1:2:1


Question 85:

Coupling and Repulsion were terms introduced by:
A. Mendel
B. Morgan
C. Bateson and Punnett
D. Nilsson-Ehle
Correct Answer: C. Bateson and Punnett


Question 86:

Golden Rice is a commercially developed crop improved by molecular breeding for which grain nutrient?
A. Iron
B. Zinc
C. Vitamin C
D. Beta-carotene
Correct Answer: D. Beta-carotene


Question 87:

NC III (North Carolina Design III) utilizes which population as a base?
A. F1 population
B. Random mating population
C. F2 or backcross population
D. Pure lines
Correct Answer: C. F2 or backcross population


Question 88:

Maize is rich in which amino acid?
A. Tryptophan
B. Methionine
C. Lysine
D. Cysteine
Correct Answer: C. Lysine


Question 89:

The Xa13 gene is located on chromosome number - and xa21 gene is located on chromosome number--
A. 11,6
B. 8,11
C. 1,3
D. 3,1
Correct Answer: B. 8,11


Question 90:

The Law of Homologous Series in Variation was given by:
A. Gregor John Mendel
B. Charles Darwin
C. Nikolai Vavilov
D. J.B.S. Haldane
Correct Answer: C. Nikolai Vavilov


Question 91:

Oryza nivara is a  source for resistance to:
A. Bacterial Blight
B. Blast
C. Grassy Stunt Virus
D. Brown Plant Hopper
Correct Answer: C. Grassy Stunt Virus


Question 92:

Programmed Cell Death (PCD) is:
A. Process of cell damage due to stress
B. Random process of cell elimination
C. Genetically regulated process of cell elimination
D. Pathogen induced cell death
Correct Answer: C. Genetically regulated process of cell elimination


Question 93:

Gene Pyramiding involves:
A. Introducing multiple genes into a single variety for different traits
B. Combining two or more major genes for resistance to a single pathogen or pest
C. Stacking genes for herbicide tolerance
D. Using multiple promoters to enhance the gene expression
Correct Answer: B. Combining two or more major genes for resistance to a single pathogen or pest


Question 94:

DNA Polymerase I is a polymerase present in:
A. Eukaryotes
B. Prokaryotes
C. Both Prokaryotes and Eukaryotes
D. Viruses
Correct Answer: B. Prokaryotes


Question 95:

Pseudodominance occurs in:
A. Deletion
B. Inversion
C. Duplication
D. Translocation
Correct Answer: A. Deletion


Question 96:

The first cultivated artificial intergeneric crop is:
A. Raphanobrassica
B. Pomato
C. Triticale
D. Anledia
Correct Answer: C. Triticale


Question 97:

The dwarf wheat sourcing gene is from which source:
A. Norin 10
B. VRN gene (Vernalization response genes)
C. RhT gene ( Reduced height genes ) Rht 1 and Rht 2
D. Gliadin gene
Correct Answer: C. RhT gene


Question 98:

First studied tetraploid tobacco:
A. Mendel
B. Clausen
C. Morgan
D. McClintock
Correct Answer: B. Clausen


Question 99:

Vara Laxmi is the cross between:
A. Gossypium arboreum and Gossypium herbaceum
B. Gossypium hirsutum and Gossypium barbadense
C. Gossypium barbadense and Gossypium arboreum
D. Gossypium herbaceum and Gossypium hirsutum
Correct Answer: B. Gossypium hirsutum and Gossypium barbadense


Question 100:

Recombinant Inbred Lines (RILs) are the most powerful mapping population for:
A. Pedigree analysis
B. Heritability estimation
C. QTL analysis
D. Linkage analysis
Correct Answer: C. QTL analysis


Question 101:

Primitive cultivars cultivated by farmers over generations are known as:
A. Modern cultivar
B. Absolute cultivar
C. Landraces
D. Mutants
Correct Answer: C. Landraces


Question 102:

How many centers of origin were proposed by Vavilov?
A. 7
B. 8
C. 9
D. 10
Correct Answer: B. 8


Question 103:

Seed collections that are distributed only for regeneration are called:
A. Base collection
B. Active collection
C. Collection
D. Field collection
Correct Answer: A. Base collection


Question 104:

Potato is a modified stem and is called:
A. Bulb
B. Tuber
C. Suckers
D. Corm
Correct Answer: B. Tuber


Question 105:

Protandry occurs in which of the following:
A. Maize
B. Sugar beet
C. Marigold
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D. All of the above


Question 106:

In case of barley, the chief characteristic is:
A. Chapati making
B. Milling
C. Malting
D. Baking
Correct Answer: C. Malting


Question 107:

Self-pollinated crops increase:
A. Homozygosity
B. Homogenity
C. Heterozygosity
D. Heterogenity
Correct Answer: A. Homozygosity


Question 108:

Pigeonpea has the chromosome number:
A. 14
B. 22
C. 28
D. 56
Correct Answer: B. 22


Question 109:

Dominance hypothesis was given by:
A. Mather
B. East and Shull
C. Jones
D. Davenport
Correct Answer: B. East and Shull


Question 110:

The term Horizontal Resistance given by:
A. Browning
B. Flor
C. Vander Plank
D. Marshall
Correct Answer: C. Vander Plank


Question 111:

The Barley mutant variety developed by mutation breeding is Notch resistant to:
A. Rust
B. Smut
C. Powdery Mildew
D. Covered Smut
Correct Answer: C. Powdery Mildew


Question 112:

Physical mapping of chromosome uses unit:
A. Centimorgan
B. Recombination Unit
C. Base pairs,  Kilobase pair, Megabase pair
F. Linkage Groups
Correct Answer: C. Base pairs, D. Kilobase pair, E. Megabase pair


Question 113:

The first organism genome sequenced was:
A. E. coli
B. Saccharomyces cerevisiae (yeast)
C. Caenorhabditis elegans (nematode)
D. Haemophilus influenzae (bacteria)
Correct Answer: D. Haemophilus influenzae


Question 114:

Mendel's universally accepted law:
A. Law of Dominance and Law of Segregation
B. Law of Independent Assortment and Law of Dominance
C. Law of Segregation
D. Law of Unit Characters and Law of Segregation
Correct Answer: C. Law of Segregation


Question 115:

Physical mapping of gene can be done with the help of:
A. Genetic crosses
B. Only cytological techniques
C. Restriction enzyme DNA sequencing and various molecular markers
D. Only pedigree analysis
Correct Answer: C. Restriction enzyme DNA sequencing and various molecular markers


Question 116:

Telomeres can be seen at the end of chromosome during various stages of the cell cycle, particularly well defined in:
A. Prophase
B. Anaphase
C. Metaphase
D. Telophase
Correct Answer: C. Metaphase


Question 117:

A balanced translocation where no genetic material is lost or gained produces:
A. Only sterile gametes
B. Only gametes with duplication or deletion
C. Fertile gametes
D. Only aneuploid gametes
Correct Answer: C. Fertile gametes


Question 118:

Robertsonian translocation is a specific type of:
A. Inversion
B. Deletion
C. Chromosome rearrangement
D. Gene mutation
Correct Answer: C. Chromosome rearrangement


Question 119:

Breeders use for seed collection:
A. Base collection
B. Working collection
C. Active collection
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: B. Working collection


Question 120:

Horizontal resistance also known as race non-specific resistance provides protection against the:
A. Single race of the pathogen
B. Broad range of pathogen races
C. Specific biotype insects
D. Single strain of virus
Correct Answer: B. Broad range of pathogen races


Question 121:

Hypersensitive Response (HR) is a localized defense mechanism in a plant characterized by:
A. Systemic resistance through the plant
B. In growth and infection site
C. Rapid cell death at the site of pathogen infection
D. Production of antibodies
Correct Answer: C. Rapid cell death at the site of pathogen infection


Question 122:

Tocopherol (Vitamin E) are present in oil:
A. Pigments
B. Carbohydrates
C. Antioxidants
D. Fatty acids
Correct Answer: C. Antioxidants


Question 123:

Stress hormone is:
A. Gibberellin
B. Auxin
C. Abscisic acid
D. Cytokinin
Correct Answer: C. Abscisic acid


Question 124:

In case of disease, score zero indicates:
A. Lack of disease symptom
B. Resistance
C. Lack of contact
D. Lack of pathogen production
Correct Answer: B. Resistance


Question 125:

Donald in 1968 proposed ideotype in the crop:
A. Maize
B. Rice
C. Wheat
D. Sorghum
Correct Answer: C. Wheat


Question 126:

Single cell pollinated homozygous plants is called:
A. Multiline
B. Pure line
C. Isogenic line
D. Inbred line
Correct Answer: B. Pure line


Question 127:

________Method used for development of the isogenic line:
A. Multiline
B. Bulk
C) Backcross
D) Mass Selection

Correct Answer: Backcross method


Question 128:

Poly cross test is most useful in:
A. Cleistogamous crop
B. Clonal crop
C. Apomictic
D. Crosspollinated crops

Correct Answer: C. Cross-pollinated crop


Question 129:

The cross between inbred and open pollinated variety is called:
A. Single cross
B. Polycross
C. Multicross
D. Top cross

Correct Answer: D. Top cross


Question 130:

Adverse effect of host plant on development of insect pest which feed on plant is called:
A. Antibiosis
B. Anti-genosis
C. Non-preference
D. Tolerance
Correct Answer: A. Antibiosis


Question 131:

For correction of defects in a popular variety, method used:
A. Bulk method
B. Backcross method
C. Pedigree method
D. Pure lines
Correct Answer: B. Backcross method


Question 132:

Is an example of primary introduction:
A. Kalyan Sona
B. Sonalika
C. Sona 64
D. Jaya
Correct Answer: D. Jaya


Question 133:

Source of Cytoplasmic Male Sterile gene in Sorghum:
A. Tift 23 A
B. Milo
C. Kafir 60
D. CMS-T

Correct Answer: Kafir 60


Question 134:

Ear to row method in maize is given by:
A. Lonquist
B. Hopkins
C) Jones
D) Jenkins

Correct Answer: Hopkins


Question 135:

The concentration of ______ increases when the plants are exposed to drought condition:
A. Proline
B. Auxin
C. Gibberellin
D. Cytokinin
Correct Answer: A. Proline


Question 136:

Source of dwarfing gene in rice is from which country:
A. Japan
B. Taiwan
C. India
D. Philippines
Correct Answer: B. Taiwan


Question 137:

The difference between population mean and mean of selected plants is known as:
A. Genetic Advance
B. Selection Differential
C. Heritability
D. Directional Selection
Correct Answer: B. Selection Differential


Question 138:

Which method is also known as evolutionary method of plant breeding:
A. Bulk method
B. Backcross method
C. Pedigree method
D. Pure line method
Correct Answer: A. Bulk method


Question 139:

Wheat variety MLKS 11 was developed by the mixing of seed of how many isogenic lines:
A. 5
B. 7
C. 8
D. 9

Correct Answer: Eight


Question 140:


Which is most widely used for rapid isolation of homozygous line:

A. SSD (Single Seed Descent)
B. Double Haploid
C. Cytogenesis
D. Bulk method
✅ Correct Answer: B. Double Haploid


Question 141:


Selection for simple inherited trait starts from which generation:

A. F2
B. F3
C. F4
D. F5
✅ Correct Answer: A. F2


Question 142:
Genetic variation in clone may arise due to:
A. Segregation and recombination
B. Mechanical mixture
C. Somatic mutation
D. All of the above
✅ Correct Answer: C. Somatic mutation


Question 143:
The term Nobilization is related to which crop:
A. Sugar beet
B. Potato
C. Ginger
D. Sugarcane
✅ Correct Answer: D. Sugarcane


Question 144:
Term Heterosis is coined by:
A. East
B. Jones
C. Shull
D. Davenport
✅ Correct Answer: Shull


Question 145:
Which of the following is the most important stage for disease escape:

A. Contact
B. Infection
C. Establishment
D. Reproduction
Correct Answer: B. Infection


Question 146:
Which plant part is used for the mutagen treatment:

A. Seed
B. Pollen grain
C. Vegetative propagules
D. All of the above
✅ Correct Answer: D. All of the above


Question 147:
Totipotency is the feature of which of the following:

A. Plant cell
B. Animal cell
C. Cancer cell
D. All of the above
✅ Correct Answer: A. Plant cell


Question 148:
Polyploidy is induced through:
A. Irradiation
B. Mutagen chemical
C. Ethylene
D. Colchicine
✅ Correct Answer: D. Colchicine


Question 149:
Somatic hybridization is achieved through:

A. Grafting
B. Conjugation
C. Protoplast fusion
D. Recombinant DNA technology
✅ Correct Answer: C. Protoplast fusion


Question 150:
Bagging is done to:

A. Avoid cross pollination
B. Avoid self pollination
C. Achieve desired pollination
D. Prevent contamination from foreign pollen
✅ Correct Answer: D. Prevent contamination from foreign pollen



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2 Comments

  1. Keep it up ...Needed some more Question Papers

    ReplyDelete
  2. please check 18th question answer

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