1) The first step in genetic improvement of a plant species is
A. domestication
B. selection
C. acclimatization
D. hybridization
2) Johansen proposed the pureline theory based on his work on
A. cotton
B. French bean
C. wheat
D. sugarcane
3) In case of wheat, the gene for reduced height is derived from
A. Norin 10
B. Dee-geo-woo-gen
C. Tom thumb
D. Norin 8
4) Varalakshmi cotton hybrid is derived from the cross between
A. G. hirsutum × G. hirsutum
B. G. barbadense × G. hirsutum
C. G. barbadense × G. barbadense
D. G. arboreum × G. hirsutum
5) Heterosis due to dominance gene effect is best exploited by
A. synthetic varieties
B. composite varieties
C. hybrid varieties
D. open-pollinated varieties
6) Gradual loss of genetic variability present in a crop is known as
A. genetic drift
B. genetic erosion
C. acclimatisation
D. domestication
7) Kesari contains a neurotoxic substance known as
A. BOAA
B. Bloxin
C. glucosinolake
D. HCN
8) The father of hybrid rice is
A. N.E. Borlaug
B. S. K. Rajaram
C. L. Yuan
D. M.S. Swaminathan
9) Generally, pulses are deficient in
A. proline
B. lysine
C. tryptophan & methionine
D. calcium
10) DUS criterion requires the following in case of a new variety
A. differs from other varieties of the same crop
B. consists of uniform individuals
C. stable performance
D. all of (a), (b) and (c)
11) Vavilov proposed the term
A. gene center
B. center of origin
C. primary center of origin
D. centers of diversity
12) The quickest method of developing an improved variety is
A. mass selection
B. introduction
C. hybridization
D. acclimatisation
13) Genetic drift is also called as
A. genetic erosion
B. random drift
C. seed bank
D. gene pool
14) Pigeon pea, rice, chickpea, mung bean and cowpea originated in
A. Asia minor
B. Central Asia
C. China
D. Hindustan
15) Triticale is developed from a cross between
A. Secale cereale × T. turgidum
B. Secale cereale × T. aestivum
C. T. durum × T. aestivum
D. Oryza sativa × T. aestivum
16) A good example of a plant species being domesticated at present
A. sugarcane
B. cotton
C. jojoba
D. wheat
17) Oat variety Kent was introduced from
A. China
B. USA
C. Australia
D. Pakistan
18) The cultivated banana is
A. diploid
B. allotetraploid
C. allotriploid
D. autotetraploid
19) Flag smut of wheat came into India from
A. USA
B. China
C. Australia
D. Mexico
20) Seed collections distributed only for regeneration are called
A. working collection
B. active collection
C. reserve collection
D. field collection
21) Cleistogamy promotes
A. cross pollination
B. self pollination
C. geitonogamy
D. protogyny
22) In gametophytic system, self-incompatibility is eliminated
A. by irradiation
B. selfing
C. chromosome doubling
D. bud pollination
23) Modified flowers that develop into plants directly without the formation of seed
a. bulb
b. pin flower
c. pubescent
d. monocot
24) Triple fusion ultimately leads to the formation of
a. endosperm
b. gamete
c. ovule
d. zygote
25) In the sporophytic system, the site of incompatibility reaction is
a. pollen
b. stigma
c. corolla
d. anther
26) In which system removal of stigma results in
a. heterophytic
b. gametophytic
c. homophytic
d. fertilization
27) The anthers and stigmas of a bisexual flower mature at the same time is called
a. homogamy
b. heterogamy
c. protogyny
d. herkogamy
28) The mode of pollination in rye is
a. cross pollination
b. self-pollination
c. often self-pollination
d. cross-pollination
29) Distyly is found in
a. petunia
b. crepis
c. primula
d. lythrum
30) Protandry occurs in
a. maize
b. sugar beet
c. marigold
d. all of the above
31) The concept of biparental mating was originally developed by
a. Kearsey & Jinks
b. Constock & Robinson
c. Hayman & Jinks
d. Anderson
32) The metrigraph analysis is based on the estimates of
a. mean
b. correlation
c. median
d. variance
33) The phenomenon of crossing over occurs during
a. zygotene
b. diplotene
c. metaphase
d. anaphase
34) Genetically, variation can be created through
a. hybridization, mutation
b. somatic hybridization & polyploidy
c. hybridization
d. all of the above
35) The D statistic was proposed in 1936 by
a. Kearsey & Jinks
b. Anderson
c. Malhanabis
d. Kempthorne
36) Selection indices are generally classified into
a. general and classical
b. general and restricted
c. general, classical and restricted
d. general, classical, and restricted
37) On Y vs W graph, when the regression line passes through the origin, it indicates
a. overdominance
b. partial dominance
c. complete dominance
d. no dominance
38) A gene influencing the expression of more than one character is called
a. dominant
b. recessive
c. pleiotropy
d. oligogen
39) When F1 individuals are crossed with recessive strain, the cross is called
a. test cross
b. double cross
c. triple cross
d. back cross
40) The statistics, which measures the degree and direction of association between two or more variables is called
a. regression coefficient
b. correlation coefficient
c. regression
d. correlation
41) When different genotypes in a population reproduce at different rates, is called as
a. evaluation
b. selection
c. stabilization
d. estimation
42) A large and distinct morphological effect, and often affects several characters of the plant
a. male sterility
b. selection
c. micromutation
d. polyploidy
43) The transfer of genes from one species into another through repeated backcrossing is known as
a. interspecific hybridization
b. polyploidy
c. progressive hybridization
d. introgression
44) The varieties developed by systematic breeding effort were once commercially cultivated but are no more grown
a. land races
b. breeding lines
c. wild relatives
d. obsolete varieties
45. The growing of the various germplasm entries in field and having fresh seeds for further storage is called
A. collection of germplasm
B. genetic erosion
C. genetic pool
D. conservation of germplasm
46. Within large centers of diversity, small areas may exhibit much greater centers of diversity than the center as a whole; these are known as
A. primary center of origin
B. secondary center of origin
C. microcenter of the pool
D. genetic pool
47. The viability of this group of seeds drop drastically if their moisture content is reduced below 12%, which is known as
A. maize
B. wheat
C. legumes
D. tropical seeds
48. The Calcutta Botanic Gardens was established in the year
A. 1881
B. 1881
C. 1681
D. 1981
49. The part of the plant used for the propagation of a species is known as
A. germplasm
B. propagule
C. mutation
D. DNA bank
50. To keep the plant materials in isolation to prevent the spread of diseases etc. present in them to the other materials is known as
A. production
B. quarantine
C. exploration
D. shoot banks
51. Abyssinian center is the primary center of origin for
A. jowar
B. soybean
C. potato
D. sunflower
52. Central Asia center is the secondary center of origin for
A. broad bean
B. rye
C. maize
D. rajma
53. USA is the primary center of origin for
A. wheat
B. rice
C. sunflower
D. maize
54. South American center is the primary center for
A. pea
B. potato
C. wheat
D. rice
55. When the introduced variety is well adapted to the new environment, it is released for commercial cultivation without any alteration is called
A. primary introduction
B. secondary introduction
C. gene sanctuary
D. plant bank
56. The genes and their alleles present in all individuals, which can freely interbreed or can hybridize with each other is called
A. gene bank
B. gene pool
C. land races
D. macro mutation
57. The change in gene and genotype frequencies of a sample/population entirely due to chance is called
A. random drift
B. gene pool
C. land races
D. selection
58. The crop brought to Malaysia from South America to protect it from a leaf disease is
A. maize
B. soybean
C. hevea rubber
D. coffee
59. Pusa Ruby tomato was derived from a cross between
A. Ratna × Karishma
B. Meeruty × Sioux
C. Arunima × Mahak
D. Surya × Vishesh
60. Law of homologous series' is given by
A. Mendel
B. Vavilov
C. Darwin
D. Benzer
61. Land races are
A. hybrid varieties
B. advanced strains
C. local varieties
D. obsolete varieties
62. Modified flowers that develop into plants directly without formation of seeds
A. tuber
B. rhizome
C. bulbils
D. corm
63. Embryos develop directly from vegetative cells of the ovule
A. apospory
B. parthenogenesis
C. apogamy
D. adventive embryo
64. Synergids or antipodal cells develop into an embryo
A. apospory
B. parthenogenesis
C. apogamy
D. adventive embryo
65. Staminate and pistillate flowers occur on the same plant
A. monoecious
B. dioecious
C. apomixis
D. parthenogenesis
66. Production of microspores and megaspores is known as
A. gametogenesis
B. sporogenesis
C. geitonogamy
D. fertilization
67. Fusion of one of the two sperms with the egg cell, producing a diploid zygote
A. anthesis
B. apogamy
C. fertilization
D. diploospory
68. Transfer of pollen grains from anthers to stigma is known as
A. sporogenesis
B. anthesis
C. pollination
D. triple fusion
69. The mechanism of pollination in which the flowers open, but only after pollination has taken place
a. cleistogamy
b. chasmogamy
c. monoecious
d. dichogamy
70. The failure of pollen from a flower to fertilize the same flower or other flowers on the same plant
a. apomixis
b. male sterility
c. self-incompatibility
d. cleistogamy
71. The highly heterozygous species, which show mild to severe inbreeding depression and considerable amount of heterosis
a. self-pollinated species
b. cross-pollinated species
c. asexual reproductive species
d. none
72. The incompatibility reaction of pollen is determined by its own genotype, and not by the genotype of the plant on which it is produced
a. heteromorphic
b. apomixis
c. sporophytic
d. gametophytic
73. The incompatibility reaction of pollen is determined by the genotype of the plant on which the pollen is produced, and not by the genotype of the pollen
a. heteromorphic
b. apomixis
c. sporophytic
d. gametophytic
74. A gene introduced into the genome of an organism by recombinant DNA technology or genetic engineering is called as
a. transgene
b. ligase
c. topoisomerase
d. pellicle
75. In the sporophytic incompatibility system, the stigma is papillate and dry, and is covered with a hydrated layer of proteins known as
a. SSB protein
b. ligase
c. topoisomerase
d. pellicle
76. Bajra is predominantly cross-pollinated because it is
a. protoandrous
b. hermaphrodite
c. heterozygous
d. protogynous
77. The mechanism present for promoting cross-pollination in asparagus and date palm is
a. monoecy
b. dioecy
c. protogyny
d. protandry
78. Tobacco and Primula is cross-pollinated owing to
a. self-incompatibility
b. dichogamy
c. monoecious
d. protandry
79. Maize and Sugar beet is cross-pollinated owing to
a. self-incompatibility
b. protoandry
c. dichogamy
d. monoecious
80. In apomixis, the progeny closely resembles
a. female parent
b. male parent
c. F1 hybrid
d. none of these
81. The classifications of self-incompatibility in plants was reported by
a. Lamarck
b. Weisman
c. Lewis
d. Muller
82. The progeny test was developed by
a. Galton
b. Vilmorin
c. Bateson
d. Mendel
83. The terms genotype and phenotype were proposed by
a. Vilmorin
b. Hallet
c. Bateson
d. Johannsen
84. Self-pollination increases
a. Homogeneity
b. Heterozygosity
c. Homozygosity
d. Heterozygosity
85. The purity of pureline varieties can be maintained by
a. Mass selection
b. Recurrent selection
c. Pedigree selection
d. Progeny test
86. Fusa kaki is a variety of
a. Mung bean
b. Pea
c. Rice
d. Red gram
87. Pureline selection can be applied for the improvement of
a. Induced varieties
b. Local varieties
c. Old pureline varieties
d. All of the above
88. In case of barley, the chief quality characteristic is
a. Chapati making
b. Milling
c. Baking
d. Brewing
89. Grid method of mass selection is due to
a. Briggs
b. Hopkins
c. Mendel
d. Gardener
90. HUW-12 is a variety of
a. Rice
b. Wheat
c. Pea
d. Arhar
91. Mass pedigree method was developed by
a. Harland
b. Harlan
c. Swaminathan
d. Vilmorin
92. Atlas is a famous variety of
a. Mungbean
b. Arhar
c. Barley
d. Soybean
93. Isogenic lines are easily produced by which breeding method?
a. Mass
b. SSD
c. Pedigree
d. Backcross
94. The idea of multiline varieties was first suggested in 1952 by?
a. Jenson
b. Harlan
c. Swaminathan
d. Boland
95. Single seed descent method was originally suggested in 1939 by?
a. Virgil
b. Bingham
c. Marshall
d. Biggs
96. Diallel selective mating design was proposed by?
a. Goulden
b. Jensen
c. Biggs
d. Thresley
97. The chief weakness of single seed descent scheme is?
a. Marshall
b. High demand of resources
c. Loss of high yielding segregants
d. Lack of opportunity for selection
98. Plant lines can be selected for?
a. Plant height
b. Uniformity
c. Early maturity
d. High yield
99. In which of the following, the segregating generations are planted at?
a. Spaced planted
b. Dense planted
c. Planted at commercial rates
d. Planted in off-season nurseries
100. In which of the following, the segregating generations are?
a. Backcross and SSD
b. Pedigree and Backcross
c. Bulk and SSD
d. Pedigree and Bulk
101. Which is the widely and easily applicable approach for rapid isolation of homozygous lines?
a. SSD
b. Gynegenesis
c. Double haploid
d. Bulk method
102. Botanical name of carnation is?
a. Dianthus sp.
b. Dianthus barbatus
c. Dianthus caryophyllus
d. Shorea robusta
103. The botanical name of nobel canes is?
a. Saccharum officinarum
b. S. barberi
c. S. sinensis
d. S. spontaneum
104. The botanical name of rye is?
a. Secale cereale
b. Triticum aestivum
c. Oryza sativa
d. Brassica nigra
105. Selection of simply inherited traits is started from?
a. F₁
b. F₂
c. F₄
d. F₆
106. The term spadix is related to?
a. rice
b. maize
c. Coconut
d. Castor
107. Triticale was first produced by?
a. Lysenko
b. Vilmorin
c. Darwin
d. Rimpau
108. Triticale was developed from the cross between?
a. Wheat and rye
b. Rice and wheat
c. Wheat and barley
d. Rice and barley
109. Chromosome number of plants can be doubled by?
a. Colchicine
b. Nitrous oxide
c. Acenaphthene
d. All of the above
110. Bread wheat has somatic chromosome number of
a. 2n = 14
b. 2n = 42
c. 2n = 28
d. 2n = 56
111. The most commonly used agent for chromosome doubling is
a. Colchicine
b. Nitrogen
c. Decapitation
d. Callus culture
112. The most critical factor in a hybridization programme is
a. choice of parents
b. handling of segregating generations
c. pollination
d. emasculation
113. The most relevant consideration for the choice of parents in transgressive breeding is
a. combining ability
b. per se performance
c. genetic diversity
d. both a and c
114. The chief purpose of emasculation is to
a. promote seed set
b. prevent selfing
c. prevent outcrossing
d. promote crossing
115. The most critical point to be considered during emasculation is
a. all the anthers must be removed
b. Anthers must not burst
c. Gyneocium must not be damaged
d. all of the above
116. In which crop, the entire corolla may be removed during emasculation?
a. cotton
b. wheat
c. rice
d. pea
117. Endosperm balance number is related to
a. endosperm development
b. embryo development
c. fruit development
d. endosperm and seed development
118. Endosperm balance number is relevant in case of
a. male parent
b. male and female parent
c. female parent
d. male parent and hybrid
119. Hybrid necrosis in wheat does not show this feature
a. seedling death
b. Necrosis at 22°C
c. complementary interaction
d. variation in severity
120. Raphanobrassica is promising as a
a. forage crop
b. root crop
c. vegetable crop
d. oilseed crop
121. Sterility in distant hybrids may be due to
a. lack of chromosome pairing
b. cryptic structural hybridity
c. cytoplasm of alien species
d. all of the above
122. An alien addition line has a chromosome constitution of
a. 2n
b. 2n + 2
c. 2n + 1
d. 2n + 1 + 1
123. The most suited breeding scheme to handle wide crosses is
a. Pedigree
b. Diallel selective mating
c. backcross
d. recurrent selection
124. In Triticum aestivum, gene ph is present on chromosome
A. 5A
B. 2B
C. 5B
D. 5D
125. Resistance to which disease was transferred from Solanum demissum into potato
A. virus Y
B. virus X
C. late blight
D. Early blight
126. The variety developed through interspecific hybridization is
A. Co 31
B. Jaya
C. Masuri
D. Bala
127. Line x tester analysis is unable to detect/estimate
A. GCA effects
B. Epistatic gene action
C. SCA effects
D. Dominance gene action
128. Which of the following has the highest genetic purity?
A. Certified seed
B. Breeder seed
C. Foundation seed
D. Nucleus seed
129. Varalaxmi is a hybrid variety of
A. Cotton
B. Wheat
C. Bajra
D. Sorghum
130. DNA synthesis takes place during
A. S phase
B. M phase
C. G1 phase
D. G2 phase
131. The process of adaptation of a genotype to a changed environment is
A. Adaptation
B. Adaptability
C. Acclimatization
D. Domestication
132. Development of seed by self-pollination
A. Autogamy
B. Allogamy
C. Chasmogamy
D. Protogyny
133. Progeny of a single plant obtained by asexual reproduction is called
A. Entry
B. Cultivar
C. Gamete
D. Clone
134. A test of statistical significance which is used to compare the difference among several means is called
A. Z test
B. T test
C. F test
D. Paired T test
135. A sexual unit or a cell produced by female and male reproductive organs is
A. Gene
B. Zygote
C. Gamete
D. Cell
136. The process of bringing wild species under cultivation is
A. Adaptation
B. Acclimatization
C. Domestication
D. Adaptability
137. Superiority of F₁ hybrid over the best commercial variety of a region is called
A. Economic heterosis
B. Mid-parent heterosis
C. Heterobeltiosis
D. Hybrid vigour
138. Interaction of genes at different loci affecting the same character is
A. Additive
B. Epistasis
C. Homeostasis
D. Dominance
139. The buffering capacity of a genotype to environmental changes is called
A. Additive
B. Epistasis
C. Homeostasis
D. Dominance
140. The progeny of a cross between genetically dissimilar parents is called
A. Hybrid
B. Pureline
C. Multiline
D. Population
141. Maturation of anthers and stigma of a flower at the same time is called
A. Homogamy
B. Heterogamy
C. Homeostasis
D. Hermaphrodite
142. A semigraphic method used for assessment of morphological variation in the germplasm is
A. Regression analysis
B. Stability analysis
C. Metroglyph analysis
D. D² analysis
143. A gene which enhances the mutation rate of other genes in the same genome is called
A. Enhancer gene
B. Mutator gene
C. Minor gene
D. Reporter gene
144. The deliberate seed mixtures of isogenic lines, closely related lines, or unrelated lines is called
A. Multilines
B. Composite
C. Synthetic
D. Hybrid
145. Seed which can be dried to low moisture content and stored at low temperature without losing their viability is called
A. Breeder seed
B. Basic seed
C. Certified seed
D. Orthodox seed
146. An organism or virus which lives upon or within another living organism is called
A. Disease
B. Insect
C. Parasite
D. Symbiont
147. Evaluation of genotypic value of an individual based on its progeny performance is called
A. Progeny test
B. T test
C. Uniform trial
D. F test
148. The process of development of embryo from the egg cell without fertilization is called
A. Monoecious
B. Dioecious
C. Apomixis
D. Parthenogenesis
149. The product of fertilized ovule or any plant part which is used for mass multiplication or crop breeding:
a. Endosperm
b. Plant
c. Seed
d. Flower
150. The suitability of a variety for general cultivation over a wide range of environmental conditions is called:
a. Stability
b. Variety
c. Adaptability
d. Domestication
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