1. Generally pulses are deficient in
(A) Methionine and
lysine
(C) Tryptophan
2. The modern wheat varieties are
(A)
Photoinsensitive
(C) Photo-and
thermo-sensitive
(B) Tryptophan and methionine
(D) Lysine
(B) Thermoinsensitive
(D) Photo-and termo-insensitive
3. The Source of reduced height (rht) genes used in wheat
breeding is
(A) Norin 10
(B) Tom Thumb
(C) Norin 10 and Tom Thumb
(D) Dee-geo-woo-gen
4. CPRI (Shimla) stands for
(A) Central Pulses Research Institute
(B) (B) Central
Potato Research Institute
(C) Central Peanut Research Institute
(D) Central Plantation Research Institute
(C)B and R lines
5. Which of the following three generation systems of
multiplication is followed for seed
production in India?
(A) Nucleus seed-foundation seed-certified seed
(B) Breeder seed-foundation seed-certifies seed
(C) Breeder seed-foundation seed-registered seed
(D) Nucleus seed-registered seed-certifies seed
6. Two line system of hybrid seed production is based
on
(A) A and B lines
(B) A and R lines
(D) A line and B or R line
7. The factors responsible for cytoplasmic male sterility
are located in
(A) DNA
(B) Nuclear DNA
(C) Mitocholndrial DNA
(D) Chloroplast DNA
8. The world’s first high yielding semidwarf aromatic rice
variety is
(A) Texamati
(B) T 9
(C)Taraori Basmati
9. Texamati rice was patented by
(A) Monsanto
(C) Agracetus
(D) Pusa Basmati 1
(B) Delta-Pine Land
(D) Ricetek
10. Heterosis due to dominance gene effects is best
exploited by
(A) Synthetic varieties
(B) Composite varieties
(C) Hybrid varieties
(D) Open-pollinated varieties
11. Germplasm is also called
(A) Gene pool (B)
Genetic resource
(C)Gene Bank
(D) World collection
12. NBPGR is responsible for the introduction and
maintenance of germplasm of
(A) Agricultural Crops
(B) Agricultural and horticultural crops
(C) Horticultural crops
(D) Agricultural, horticultural and forest plant species
13. The cultivated banana is a
(A) Diploid (B)
Autotriploid
(C) Allotriploid (D)
Allotetraploid
14. Genetic drift is also called
(A) Genetic erosion
(B) Random drift
(C) Genetic slippage
(D) Genetic loss
15. Which is the most correct about cells present in an
embryo sac?
(A) Egg cell, two antipodal cells, a secondary nucleus and
two synergids
(B) Egg cells, two synergids and a secondary nucleus
(C) A 2n secondary nucleus, one egg cell and three antipodal
cells
(D) Three antipodal cells, two synergids, one egg cell and
one 2n secondary nucleus
16. Which is the most common source of commercially used male sterility?
(A) Induced mutations
(B) Spontaneous mutations
(C) Genetic engineering
(D) Interspecific hybridization
17. In case a dihybrid crosses, how many types of gametes
will be produced by F1?
(A) 2 (B) 4
(C) 9 (D)16
18. Crossing over occurs during
(A) Leptotene (B)
Zygotene
(C)Pachytene (D)
Diptotene
19. The number of single crosses in a full diallel is equal
to
(A) N(n-1) (B) 2n
(n-1)
(C) n2 (D)
n(n-1)/2
20. The terms genotype and phenotype were given by
(A) Bateson (B)
Mendel
(C) Johannsen (D)
Morgan
21. Self-pollination increases
(A) Homozygosity
(C) Heterogeneity
(B) Heterozygosity
(D) Homogeneity
22. Purity of existing pureline varieties can be maintained
by following
(A) Pureline selection
(B) Mass selection
(C) Pedigree selection
23. Pusa baisakhi is a variety of
(A) Cowpea
(C) Mungbean
(D) Recurrent selection
(B) Frenchbean
(D) Urdbean
24. In case of barley, one chief character is
(A) Chapati making quality
(B) Milling quality
(C) Baking quality
(D) Malting quality
25. An off-season crop of wheat and barley may be grown at
(A) Wellington (Tamil Nadu)
(B) Kulu valley (Himachal Pradesh)
(C) Bikaner (Rajasthan)
(D) Jorhat (Assam)
26. HUW-234 is a variety of
(A)Pea
(C)Wheat
(C)T. timopheevi
28. Ratooning is practiced for cultivation of
(A) Maize
(C)Apple
(B) Rice
(D) Pigeonpea
27. Leaf rust resistance in wheat (Triticum aestivum)hass
been transferred from
(A) T. monococcum
(B) Aegilops speltoides
(D) All of above
(B) Mango
(D) Sugarcane
29. The chief weakness of Single Seed Descent (SSD) scheme
is
(A) High demand on resources
(B) Lack of opportunity for selection
(C) Plant loss
30. Referred as
(A) Extra chromosome
(C) Alien chromosome
(D) Loss of high yielding segregants
(B) Additional chromosome
(D) Iso chromosome
31. In bulk method, the bulk populations are
(A) Space planted
(B) Planted at commercial rates
(C) Densely planted
(D) Also grown in off-season nurseries
32. Self-and often-cross pollinated crops show considerable
extent of
(A) Inbreeding depression
(B) Heterosis and additive variance
(C) Additive variance
(D) Heterosis
33. Populations of cross-pollinated crop species are highly
(A) Heterozygous and heterogeneous
(B) Heterozygous and homogeneous
(C) Homozygous and heterogeneous
(D) Homozygous and homogeneous
34. The simplest form of progeny selection is
(A) Recurrent selection for gca (B) Mass slection
(C) Ear-to-row method
(D) Simple recurrent selection
35. Selection for simply inherited traits is started from
(A) F2 (B) F3
(C) F4 (D) F5
36. In crop improvement programmes which is the most
commonly used
(A) Intergeneric hybridization
(B) Interspecific hybridization
(C) Intervarietal hybridization
(D) Distant hybridization
37. Triticale was first produced by
(A) Karpechenko (B)
Darwin
(C) Rimpau (D)
Ladzinske
38. Somatic (2n) chromosome number in breadwheat is
(A) 14 (B) 28
(C) 42 (D) 56
39. ????
(A) Prevent selfing
(B) Promote crossing
(C)Promote seed set
(D) Prevent outcrossing
40. Sugarcane varieties are ordinarily developed through
(A) Mutation breeding
(B) Intervarietal hybridization
(C) Interspecific hybridization (D) Intergeneric
hybridization
41. Selfing reduces heterozygosity in each generation by the
factor
(A) 1/8 (B) 1/4
(C) 1/3 (D) 1/2
42. Totepotency refers to
(A) Ability of somatic cells to develop into a whole palnt
(B) Ability of dormant seed to produce seedling
(C) Ability of
parthenocarpic seed to produce seedling
(D) Ability of dormant seed to produce a whole plant
43. When a single cross hybrid is crossed with an open
pollinated variety, it is termed as
(A) Test cross
(B) Top cross
(C) Double top cross
(D) Three-way cross
44. India is the second country after China to have
developed hybrids in
(A) Maize
(B) Castor
(C) Cotton
45. Varalaxmi is a
(A) Inter hirsutum cotton hybrid
(C) Inter specific cotton hybrid
(D) Rice
(B) Inter arborium cotton hybrid
(D) O.P. cotton variety
46. In India, the crop in which a hybrid variety was first
developed was
(A) Cotton
(B) Maize
(C) Sorghum
47. Transcription redress to
(A) DNA synthesis
(C) Protein synthesis
(C) 2:4
49. Generally cereals are deficient in
(A) Methionine
(C) Lysine
(D)Bajra
(B) m-RNA synthesis
(D) Cell division
48. The present single cross hybrid varieties of maize are
produced by planting male and
female inbreds in the ration of
(A) 1:4
(B) 2:2
(D) 2:6
(B) Proline
(D) Tryptophan
50. Groundnut (Agachis hypogea L.) us
(A) Self pollinated
(C) Often cross pollinated
(B) Cross pollinated
(D) Vegetatively propagate
51. Which male sterility system is the most general in its
application?
(A) Genetic
(B) Polygenic traits
(C) Cytoplasmic-genetic
(D) Chemically induced
52. The backcross method of inbred improvement is used for
the transfer of
(A) Oligogenic traits
(B) Polygenic traits
(C) Disease resistance
(D) Chemically induced
53. The concept of gene-for gene relationship between host
and pathogen was proposed by
(A) Van der Plank
(B) Flor
(C) Browning
(D) Marshall
54. Inability of plants to resist the attack of a given
pathogen is referred as
(A) Resistance
(B) Tolerance
(C) Susceptibility
(D) Severity
55. The terms vertical and horizontal resistance were
introduced by
(A) Van der Plank
(B) Flor
(B) Browning
(D) Marshall
56. Excessive cell division resulting in overgrowth of the
diseased plant part is known as
(A) Hyperplasia
(B) Hypertrophy
(C) Atrophy
(D) Hypotrophy
57. The causal organism of leaf rust in wheat is
(A) Puccinia striformis
(B) P. graminis pv. tritici
(C) P. recondite pv. tritici
(D) P. graminis maydis
58. Genetics of pathogenicity progresses due to discovery of
new
(A) Genes for resistance
(B) Hosts for pathogens
(C) Genes for virulence
59. The gene cry 1Ac was isolated from
(A) Bacillus thuringienses
(C) Escherichia coli
61. Wheat variety C 306 is resistant to
(A) Saline soil
(C) Alkali soil
(D) Genes for resistance and for virulence
(B) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
(D) Rhizobium sp.
60. Which of the following cases of insect resistance is
governed by polygenes?
(A) Cereal leaf beetle(wheat)
(B) Spotted alfalfa aphid
(C) Greenbug (wheat)
(D) Cereal leaf beetle and greenbug
(B) Acidic Soil
(D) drought
62. Loose smut of wheat disease can be controlled by seed
treatment with
(A) GA
(B) Vitavax
(C) Thiram
(D) Metalaxyl
63. The term mutation was introduced by
(A) Bateson
(B) Gustafsson
(C) Muller
64. Nullisomics produce gametes with
(A) n+1
(C) n
(D) Hugo de Vries
(B) n-1
(D) n+1-1
65. recessive mutations can be earliest selected in
(A) M1 generation
(B) M2 generation
(C) M3 generation
(D) M4 generation
66. The frequency of spontaneous mutations is generally
(A) 10-4 (B) 10-5
(C) 10-6 (D) 10-7
67. Breadwheat has genomic constitution of
(A) ABC (B) ABD
(C) ADR (D) BDR
68. Genes suppressing homoeologous pairing in wheat have
been located on chromosome
(A) 5A (B) 5B
(C) 5D (D) 2A
69. The largest number of mutant varieties have been
developed in
(A) Cereal crops (B)
Pulse crops
(C) Cash crops
(D) Oilseed crops
70. The gigas mutant of Oenothera lamarckiana was on
(A) Allopolyploid
(B) Autotetraploid
(C) Allotetraploid
(D) Autotriploid
71. Which of the following is a popular wheat variety?
(A) Mansuri (B)
Jaya
(C) PBW343 (D) Pusa
Baisakhi
72. Wheat variety Sharbati Sonora is a gamma ray induced mutant
of the cultivar
(A) NP 799 (B)
Lerma Rojo
(C) K 68 (D) Sonora
64
73. The term central dogma refers to the flow of information
in which of the following
orders?
(A) DNA-RNA (B)
DNA-RNA-Protein
(C) DNA-Protein-RNA
(D) RNA-DNA-RNA
74. Which of the following is transition?
(A) A→T (B)A→C
(C) A→G (D)G→T
75. One gram of nitrogen is present in how many grams of
protein?
(A) 3.25 (B) 6.25
(C) 8.25 (D) 9.25
76. Frame-shift mutations are produced by base
(A) Substitution (B)
Deletion
(C)
Addition (D) Deletion and addition
77. Opaque 2 mutant of maize possesses
(A) High proptein and high lysine
(B) High protein and high tryptophan
(C) High lysine and
low tryptophan
(D) High lysine and high tryptophan
78. The father of plant tissue culture is
(A) E.C Cocking
(C) R.J. Gausheret
(B) P.R White
(D) G. Haberlandt
79. Recalcitrant seeds
(A) Can be dried at low temperature
(B) Can be stored at low temperature
(C) Cannot be dried
(D) Cannot be dried and stored at low temperature
80. RAPD markers show
(A) Co-dominance
(C) Over dominance
(B) Partial dominance
(D) Complete dominance
81. In 3-line hybrid seed production male sterile line is
referred as
(A) A-line
(B) B-line
(C) C-line
(D) R-line
82. The most commonly used vector for gene transfer in plant
is
(A) Ti plasmid
(C) Ri plasmid
83. An autotetraploid with all recessive alleles at a locus
is known as
(A) Quadriplex
(C) Simplex
84. The frequency of crossing over in determined by
(A) Parental genotype
(B) Thickness of chromosomes
(C) Length of chromosomes
(D) Distance between genes
(B) Agrobacterium tumefasciens
(D) Cauliflower mosaic virus
(B) Duplex
(D) Nulliplex
85. The first seed testing laboratory was established by
(A) Nobbe
(B) Mendel
(C) Neergard
(D) Harrington
86. DNA-dependent RNA polymerase binds to
(A) Operator gene
(B) Promoter gene
(C) Regulator gene
87. Crop ideotype redress to
(A) Ideal plant type
(C) Both
(D) Structural gene
(B) Model plant type
(D) Neither
88. Dee-gee-woo-gen is the source of dwarfing gene in
(A) Pearl millet
(B) Sorghum
(C) Rice
(D) Wheat
89. Drought resistance is associated with
(A) Morphological features
(B) Physiological features
(C) Biochemical factors
(D) All of the above
90. Under drought conditions, there is an increase in
(A) Abscisic acid content
(B) Ethylene level
(C) Proline level
(D) All of the above
91. Salinity tolerant variety of rice is
(A) IR 8 (B) IR 20
(C) Mohan (D) IR 36
92. In gametophytic system of self incompatibility, partial
fertility will result from a cross
between
(A) S1S2 x S1S2 (B)
S1S2 xS1S3
(C) S1S2 x S3S4
(D) None of the above
93. Both additive and none additive gene action is involved
in
(A) Simple recurrent selection
(B) Recurrent selection for gca
(C) Recurrent selection for sca
(D) Reciprocal recurrent selection
94. The population of F1 hybrid is
(A) Homogeneous and homozygous
(B) Homogeneous and heterozygous
(C) Heterogeneous and homozygous
(D) Heterogeneous and heterozygous
95. When heterosis is estimated over the standard commercial
check variety, it is called as
(A) Average heterosis
(B) Heterobeltiosis
(C) Useful heterosis
(D) Standard heterosis
96. The maximum varieties through mutation breeding in India
have been developed by
using
(A) X rays (B)
Gamma rays
(B) UV light (D)
EMS
97. Within a cell, the site of aerobic respiration is
(A) Ribosome (B)
Golgi bodies
(C) Mitochondria (D)
Endoplasmic reticulum
98. A true fruit develops only from
(A) Thalamus (B)
Nucellus
(C) Ovary (D) Ovule
99. The stomata are shrunken in
(A) Hydrophytes (B)
Mesophytes
(C) Xerophytes (D)
Halophytes
100.Oxygen
evolved during photosynthesis comes from
(A) Atmosphere (B) Carbon dioxide
(C)
Water (D) Soil
101.Photosynthesis
is measured by
(A) Photometer (B) Potometer
(C)
Potentiometer (D) IRGA
102. The name
bacteria was first given by
(A) Pasteur (B) Linnaeus
(C) Ehrenberg (D) Robert Koch
103. In green
plants, photosynthesis taken place in
(A) Mitochondria (B) Ribosomes
(C) Nucleus (D) Chloroplasts
104. After
fertilization, embryo develops from
(A) Ovary wall (B) Egg Cell
(C) Ovary (D) Synergids
105. Which one is a
short day plant?
(A) Tomato (B) Pepper
(C) Soybean (D) Sunflower
106. Cleistogamy
refers to
(A) Fertilization
between distant plants
(B) Pollination
within the unopened flower
(C) Fertilization
between the flowers of the same plant
(D) Failure of
fertilization upon pollination within the same plant
107. The physical
basis of life is
(A) Cytoplasm (B) Protoplasm
(C) Nucleoplasm (D) Endoplasm
108. When phloem and cambium are present on both
sides of xylem, the vascular bundle
(A) Collateral (B) Bicollateral
(C) Concentric (D) Radial
109. Kreb’s cycle
taken place in
(A) Chloroplast (B) Ribosome
(C) Endoplasmic
reticulum (D) Mitochondria
110. The edible
part of mango is
(A) Endocarp (B) Mesocarp
(C) Epicarp (D) Embryo
111. Which one of
the following is a nitrogen fixing bacterium?
(A) Escherichia (B) Diplococcus
(C) Azotobacter (D) Tuberulosis
112. Which of the following is an essential macronutrient
element?
(A) Sulphur
(B) Iron
(C) Zinc
(D) Copper
113. ermplasm can be obtained as a
(A) Gift or exchange
(B) Gift or purchase
(C) Gift or purchase through exchange
(D) Gift through exchange or purchase or collected through
exploration
114. Gene bank is best maintained as
(A) DNA bank
(B) Seed bank
(C) Field bank
115. Golden rice is a rich source of
(A) Vitamin A
(C) Vitamin K
116. Tetrazolium test is used to determine
(A) Seed quality
(C) Seed germination
(D) Shoot tip bank
(B) Vitamin B
(D) Ascorbic acid
(B) Seed viability
(D) Seed purity
117. Green revolution has been most successful in
(A) Wheat and potato
(C) Wheat and rice
118. Which crop is known as vegetable meat?
(A) Pea
(C) Frenchbean
(C) Synthetic variety
(C) Lysine
(B) Rice and barely
(D) Tea and coffee
(B) Soybean
(D) Cowpea
119. An example of heterozygous but homogeneous population
is
(A) Pureline
(B) Open pollinated variety
(D) Hybrid variety
120. What one of the
following is not a sulphur containing
amino acid ?
(A) Cystiin
(B) Cystine
(D) Methionin
121. What will be the
order of damage caused by
various organism ?
(A) Fungi >virus >bacteria >nematodes
(B)Fungi> bacteria >viruses.nematodes
(C)Bacteria >fungi >nematodes>viruses
(D)Fungi >virus >nematodes.>bacteria
122. Rust is a
(A)Soil borne
disease
(B) Air borne disease
(C) Seed borne disease
(D) Insect
transmitted disease
123. (A)
(B) Mechanical mixtures
(C) Chromosomal aberrations and mutations
(D) All of above
124.Which of the following has highest genetic purity?
(A) Foundation seed
(B) Nucleus seed
(C) Breeder seed
(D) Certifies seed
125. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(A) Onion-bulb
(B) Garlic-clove
(C) Cauliflower-head
(D) Sweet potato-tuber
126. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(A) Maize
(B) Cotton
(C) Soybean
127. Downy Mildew can be controlled by
(A) Butachlor
(C) Vitavax
(D) Mustard
(B) Metalaxyl
128. Progeny of a single plant obtained by asexual
reproduction is
(A) Inbred
(C) Strain
129. A common crop of natural autopolyploid is
(A) Potato
(C) Mustard
(D) Indosulfan
(B) Pureline
(D) Clone
(B) Cotton
(D) Wheat
130. Sorghum is a
(A) Self-pollinated crop
(C) Often cross-pollinated crop
131. Bulk method can be used for
(A) Isolation of homozygous lines
(B) Mass selection for certain traits
(B) Cross-pollinated crop
(D) None of the above
(C) Natural selection to change composition of population
(D) All of the above
132. Which of the following does not beling to family
Gramineae (Poaceae)
(A) Wheat
(B) Rice
(C) Buckwheat
133. Photosynthesis occurs more in
(A) Red light
(C) Orange light
(D) Oat
(B) Green light
(D) Yellow light
134. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
(A) Inhibitors-Kinetin
(B) Auxin-Naphthalene acetic acid
(C) Cytokinins-Zeatin
(D) Gibberellins-Gibberellic acid
135. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(A) Potato tuber moth-Grubs
(B) Rive weevil-Grubs and adults
(C) Pulse beetles-Grubs
(D) Lesser grain borer-Grubs and adults
136. Raising crops with least tillage operation is called
(A)Zero tillage
(B) No tillage
(C) Minimum tillage
137. Which one of the following is relay cropping system?
(A) Maize-Mustard-Pearlmillet-Cowpea
(B) Maize-Potato-Wheat-Greengram
(C) Blackgram-Wheat-Greengram
(D) Pearknukket-Mustard-Greengram
(C) Recombination
(D) Heavy tillage
138. Separation of alleles into different gametes during
meiosis is known as
(A) Independent assortment
(B) Segregation
(D) Cytokinensis
139. Kalyan sona and Sonalika varieties of wheat were
developed using introductions from
CIMMYT through
(A) Acclimatization
(B) Hybridization
(C) Selection
140.
(D) Mutation
The Government of India signed WTO agreement in
(A) 1981
(B) 1994
(C) 1995
(D) 1996
141. The genetic purity of the Breeder seed should be
(A) 100%
(B) 99%
(C) 98%
(D) Above 95%
142. Non-traditional areas of rice cultivation include
(A) Uttar Pradesh and Bihar
(B) West Bengal and Orissa
(C) Punjab and Haryana
(D) Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh
143. Epigel germination occurs when
(A) Cotyledons emerge above the soil
(B) Cotyledons remain below the soil
(C) Cotyledons decay during germination
(D) Cotyledons appear only when germinated on blotter paper
144. Which one is essential micronutrient element?
(A) Nitrogen
(B) Phosphorus
(C) Potash
145. Capsule is a fruit of
(A) Chickpea
(C) Brassica
(C) Tetrasome→2n=44
(C) Seeds Act
(D) Iron
(B) Cotton
(D) Trapa
146. Given that the somatic chromosome number of Triticum
aestivum is 2n=6x=42 which one
Of the following pairs is correctly matched?
(A) Monosome→2n=40
(B) Trisome→2n=42
(D) Nullisome→2n=41
147. Regulation of access to genetic resources is governed
by
(A) PPV & FR Act
(B) Biodiversity Act
(D) Environment Protection Act
148. The plans bearing male and female flowers separately on
the same are
(A) Protogynou
(B) Protoandrous
(C) Dioecious
149. The Urea fertilizer contains
(A) 16%nitrogen
(C) 36% nitrogen
(D) Monoecious
(B) 26% nitrogen
(D) 46% nitrogen
150. Square root of the variance is referred to as
(A) Coefficient of variation
(B) Standard error
(C) Standard deviation
(D) Range
Cross matching type questions(nos. 151 to 160) Each
sub-question carries ONE mark,
Choose the correct answer(A,B,C,D,E) for each sub-question
(i,ii,iii,iv,v) and enter your choice
in the circle in the circle(by shading with a HB pencil) on
the OMR-answer sheet. For each
wrong answer 0.20mark will be deducted
151. (i) Pushkarnath
(ii)C T Patel
(iii)B.P. Patel
(iv)K. Ramiah
(v) T S Venkatraman
152. (i)
(A)Rice Breeder
(B) Potato Breeder
(C) Cotton Breeder
(D) Sugarcane Breeder
(E) Wheat Breeder
(A)
(ii) Indian Institute of Vegetable Research
(iii)Central Rice Research Institute
(iv) Indian Institute of Horticultural Research
(D) Varanasi
(v) Indian Grassland and Fodder Research Institute (E)Cuttack
153. (i)
Callus
(ii) Transgenic pants
(III) Auxins
(iv) Azardirachtin
(v) Explant
154. (i). Jumping genes
(ii) Bar locus
(iii) Alkaptonuria
(iv) Base analogue
(v) Centre of
origin
155. (i) Dr.Y.S Parmar uni.of horticulture and foresty
(ii) Maharana pratap university of Agriculture and
Technology
(iii) Rajendra Agricultural university
(iv) C.S Azahad Univ.of Agriculture and technology
(v) Indira Gandhi Krisshi Vishwa Vidhyalaya
(B) Bangalore
(C) Kanpur
(A) Foreign DNA
(B) Plant part used for regeneration
(C) A mass of
unorganized cells
(D) Plant growth hormone
(E) Biopestcide
(A) N.I Vavilov
(B) 5 bromouracil
(C) Maize
(D) Drosophila
(E) Excretion of
alkapton in urine
156. (i) International Institute for Tropical
Agriculture(IITA)
(ii) Interanational Crop Res.Institute for Semiarid
Tropical
(A)Raipur
(B)Pusa Bihar
(C) Kanpur
(D) Udaipur
(E) Solan
(A) Philippines
(B) Italy
(ICRISAT)
(iii) International Plant
Genetic Resources Institute
(IPGRI) (C) Peru
(iv) International Potato Centre (CIP)
(v) International Rice Research Institute(IRRI)
(D) India
(E) Nigeria
157. (i) Pure Line
(ii) Multilines
(iii) Isogenic
lines
(iv) Pleiotropy
(v) Land races
158. (i) Jatropa
(ii) Azotobacter
(iii) Rhzobium
(iv) Tobacco Mosaic Virus
159. (i) Apple scab disease
(ii) Leaf blight of
sugarcane
(iii) Leaf rust of
wheat
(iv) Natural genetic engineer
(v) N2 fixing blue –green alga
160. (i) Rice
(ii) Maize
(iii) Tomato
(iv) Wheat
(v) Cottton
(A) One gene difference
(B) Manyfold effects of a gene
(C) Narrow genetic
base
(D) Primitive cultivars
(E) Broad genetic
base
(A) Asymbiotic N2fixer
(B) Biofuel
(C) Gum
(D) Symbiotic N2fixer
(A) Puccina recondite pv tritici
(B) Anabaena variabilis
(C) Agrobacterium tumefasciens
(D) Venturia inaequalis
(E) Helminthosprium sacchari
(A) Flavr Savr
(B) Kalyan Sona
(C) Bikaneri nerma
(D) Ganga Safed-1
(E) Pusa Basmati-1
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