1. The contribution of agriculture to national GDP is about
(A) 15%
(B) 25%
(C) 45%
(D) 60%
2. The percentage of Indian population dependent on
agriculture is about
(A) 45%
(B) 55%
(C) 65%
(D) 75%
3. APEDA deals with
(A) Agriculture production
(B) Seed production
(C) Market regulation of agriculture produce
(D) Export of agricultural produce
4. Variability is created by:
(A) Mutation
(C) Segregation
5. Isolation distance of diploid
(A) 5m
(C) 50m
(B) Polyploidy
(D) All the above three
(B) 400m
(D) 100m
6. Which legislation has been recently passed by Indian
Parliament for regulating access to
genetic resources?
(A) Wild life Protection Act
(B) Environment Protection Act
(C) Patents Amendment bill
(D) Biodiversity Act
7. Convention on Biological Diversity recognizes:
(A) Nations have sovereign rights over their genetic
resources
(B) Genetic resources are common heritage of mankind
(C) Genetic resources are meant to be exploited by every
country
(D) It is mandatory for countries to patent all genetic
resources
8. The largest producing state for rice is
(A) Orissa
(C) Punjab
(B) West Bengal
(D) Madhya Pradesh
9. The largest producing state for cotton is
(A) Rajasthan
(B) Gujarat
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Karnataka
10. Male sterile cytoplasm in sorghum was transferred from
the following source:
(A) Milo
(B) Kafir
(C) Hegari
(D) Feterita
11. Plant characteristics that are required for lodging
resistance in maize are:
(A) Thick leaves
(B) Smaller leaves
(C) Thick stem
(D) More rind thickness
12. Chromosome number in Pearlmillet crop is:
(A) 2n = 10
(B) 2n = 14
(C) 2n = 16
(D) 2n =20
13. Which is the best known breeding method to transfer
resistance genes from undated
genotypes?
(A) Pedigree method
(B) Bulk method
(C) Single seed descent method
(D) Back cross method
14. International Institute devoted for conducting research
mainly on maize crop:
(A) ICRISAT
(B) ICARDA
(C) IRRI
(D) CIMMYT
15. The number of anthers in a wheat floret are:
(A) Two
(B) Three
(C) Four
16. Bread wheat is a
(A) Monoploid
(C) Tetraploid
17. Atrazine is used for weed control in
(A) Maize
(D) Five
(B) Diploid
(D) Hexaploid
(B) Rice
(C) Wheat
(D) Chickpea
18. Phalaris minor is
(A) An important weed of wheat crop
(B) A medicinal plant used for cure of phylaria
(C) An important oil seed crop
(D) An important ornamental crop
19. When a heterozygote plant (Aa) is self pollinated, the
proportion of homozygosity after
four generation of selfing will be:
(A) 50%
(B) 57%
(C) 80.35%
(D) 93.75%
20. Parthenium argentatum is also commonly called
(A) Dhoob grass
(B) Common grass
(C) Rice grass
21. Defuzzing of seeds is done in
(A) Potato
(C) Cotton
22. Dhaincha is a
(A) Food grain crop
(D) Congress grass
(B) Jute
(D) Soybean
(B) Oil seed crop
(C) Cash
crop (D) Green manure crop
23. Cropping
intensity refers to
(A) 100 X Number of crops/ net area under cultivation
(B) 100 X cropped area / net area under cultivation
(C) 100 X Total yield / net area under cultivation
(D) 100 X Economic yield / net area under cultivation
24. Following is an one of the most essential equipment used
in processing of vegetable
seeds:
(A) Centrifugal Sheller(B) Tintometer
(C) Dehumidifier(D) Extruder
25. Mulch crops refer to
(A) Crops grown to conserve soil moisture
(B) Crops grown for paper making
(C) Crops grown for multiple purpose use
(D) Crops
grown to purity air pollutants
26. The name of dwarfing gene in wheat is:
(A) Ph. Gene (B)
Norin-10 Gene
(C) DEE-Geo-Woo-Gene
(D) S-Locus Gene
27. Dapog is a method of
(A) Nursery raising in rice
(B) (B) Seed multiplication in sugarcane
(C) Post harvest treatment of tomato seeds
(D) Method of bread making from wheat flour
28. Fruit type in tomato is known as
(A) Berry (B) Drupe
(C) Nut (D)
Caryopsis
29. Cultivated potato is a;
(A) Diploid (B)
Triploid
(B)
Allotetraploid (D)
Allotetraploid
30. Jagannath is a mutant variety of
(A) Rice (B) Wheat
(C) Barley (D)
Maize
31. Which of the following is NOT present in DNA?
(A) Thiamine (B)
Adenine
(C) Uracil (D) Guanine
32. Tift 23 is an important source of male sterility in
(A) Rice
(B) Pearlmillet
(C) Mustard
(D) Sorghum
33. Sugarcane Breeding Institute is located in Coimbatore
because
(A) Tamil Nadu is the largest sugarcane producing State
(B) The varieties of sugarcane respond best to the soil in
the area
(C) The climate is conducive for flowering in sugarcane
(D) No diseases of sugarcane occur in the region
34. The colour certification tag for foundation seed is:
(A) Golden yellow
(B) White
(C) Azure blue
35. Ratooning is associated with
(A) Mango cultivation
(C) Apple cultivation
36. Cardinal temperature of rice is
(A) Above 32oc
(C) Between 25-30oc
(D) Green
(B) sugarcane cultivation
(D) Maize cultivation
(B) between 30-32oc
(D) less than 25oc
37. Wide hybridization resulted in significant improvement
in
(A) Sugarcane
(B) Maize
(C) Chickpea
(D) sorghum
38. Textural class of a soil refers to
(A) Varying proportions of particles of different size
groups
(B) Varying colours of the soil
(C) Varying type of crops cultivated in the soil
(D) Varying availability of water in the soil
39. Diameter of coarse sand particle is
(A) More than 2mm
(C) between 0.2mm to 0.02
40. Montmorillonite crystal lattice is
(A) 1:1 layer silicate
(C) 2:2 layer silicate
(B) between 2 to 0.2mm
(D) between 0.02mm to 0.002
(B) 2:1 layer silicate
(D) 2:3 layer silicate
41. Number of isolations required for producing double cross
hybrid seeds in maize are:
(A) Three
(B) five
(C) Seven
42. Straight fertilizer is a
(D) Four
(A) Fertilizer which is applied in straight lines only
(B) Fertilizer which is produced indigenously
(C) Fertilizer which is specific to a particular crop
(D) Fertilizer which
supplies only one of the primary nutrient
43. The percent of Nitrogen is Urea is
(A) 16%
(C) 36%
(B) 26%
(D) 46%
44. Varieties developed through mass selection in
self-pollinated crops are genetically:
(A) Heterozygous and homogeneous
(B) Homozygous and homogeneous
(C) Homozygous and heterogeneous
(D) Heterozygous and heterogeneous
45. “ Black measles” or
“Croky core” of apples is caused by
(A) Nitrogen deficiency
(B) Viral diseases
(B) Physical injury
(D) Boron deficiency
46. Whiptail disease of cauliflower is caused by
(A) Fe deficiency
(B) frost injury
(C) Copper deficiency
(D) Mo deficiency
47. A nutrient required particularly by oilseed crops is
(A) Sulphur
(B) Boron
(C) Zinc
(D) Iron
48. This organelle is known as power house of a cell
(A) Mitochondria
(B) Chloroplast
(C) Nucleus
(D) Ribosomes
49. One or many dictyosomes constitute the
(A) Glyozysomes
(B) Lysosomes
(C) Mitochondria
(D) Golgi apparatus
50. The number of chromosomes after meiosis are:
(A) Halved
(B) (B) Doubled
(C) Not changed
(D) Halved or doubled depending upon the tissue where it
occurs
51. To study mitosis, it is best to take a sample of
(A) Xylem Cells
(B) Phloem Cells
(C) Meristmatic Cells
(D) Pollen Cells
52. Chromosome pairing-synapsis occurs in meiosis in which
stage
(A) Leptotene
(B) Zygotene
(C) Pachytene
(D) Dikynasis
53. Exchange of genetic material takes place in meiosis at
(A) Interphase (B)
Diplotene
(C) Pachytene (D)
Does not occur in meiosis
54. Cochicine is commonly used to produce:
(A) Mutants (B)
Haploids
(C) Triploids (D)
Tetraploids
55. In Mendel’s experiments a trait disappeared in the F1
but reappeared in F2
(A) In all the individuals
(B) In 50% of the individuals
(C) In 25% of the individuals (D) In varying proportions
56. Genes may change accidentally through
(B) Selection (B)
Hybridization
(C) Mutation (D)
Recombination
57. Linkage refers to
(A) Location of genes in clear proximity on the same
chromosome
(B) Linkage of two chromosomes through a centromere
(C) Location of gene near the centromere
(D) Location of more than one centromere on a chromosome
58. Which of the following crosses is a back cross?
(A) (A x B) x C (B) (A x B) x (C x D)
(C) (A x B) x A (D)
A x B
59. An important trait having cytoplasmic inheritance is
(A) Grain yield (B)
Maturity
(C) Protein content
(D) Male sterility
60. The influence of pollen on maternal tissue of fruit is
known as
(A) Xenia (B)
Metaxenia
(C) Dominance (D)
Epistasis
61. The progeny of a single self-fertilized homozygous
individual is known as
(A) Clone (B) Pure
line
(C) Isogenic line
(D) Registered line
62. The plants having staminate and pistilate flowers on
different individuals are
(A) Dioecious (B)
Monoecious
(C) Protogynous (D)
Protoandrous
63. The entire genetic constitution of an organism is known
as
(A) Genome (B)
Genepool
(C)
Germplasm (D) Genotype
64. An organism lacking one specific pair of chromosome is
known as
(A) Monoploid (B)
Monosome
(C) Nullisome (D)
Haploid
65. A polyploidy having recessive allele at a locus in all
chromosome is known as
(A) Simplex (B)
Nulliplex
(C) Monoplex (D)
Zeroplex
66. In statistical analysis of experimental results, the
level of significance is also known as:
(A) Uncertainty (B)
Type I error
(C) Test of
significance (D) Type II error
67. Selection generation after generation with interbreeding
of selects to provide for
recombination is known as
(A) Generation selection
(B) Pedigree selection
(C) Recurrent selection
(D) Recombination selection
68. Experimental varieties are tested over environments to
study
(A) Environmental effects
(B) Genotype-environment interaction
(C) Experimental error
(D) Framer’s observation
69. Final product of glycolysis is
(A) Glucose (B)
Fructose
(C) Sucrose (D)
Pyruvate
70. Protandry is a condition when:
(A) Pistil natures first
(B) Anthers mature first
(C) When flower does not open
(D) When flower opens after pollination
71. Energy content of glucose molecule is
(A) 6 K Cal (B) 68
K Cal
(C) 686 K Cal (D)
6868 K Cal
72. Water use efficiency is highest in
(A) CAM plants (B)
C4 Plants
(C) C3 plants (D)
C2 Plants
73. Respiratory quotient refers to
(A) Ratio of the volume of carbon dioxide expired to the
volume of oxygen consumed
(B) Ratio of the volume of oxygen expired to the volume of
carbon dioxide consumed
(C) Ration of volume of carbon dioxide expired to the volume
of carbon dioxide
consumed
(D) Ratio of the volume of oxygen expired to the volume of
oxygen consumed
74. Sunken stomata is an adaptation essentially found in
plants growing in
(A) High rainfall conditions
(B) Xerophytic conditions
(C) Low temperature conditions
(D) Costal regions
75. Dark reaction or Calvin cycle takes place in
(A) Mitochondria
(B) Stroma of Chloroplast
(C) Cytoplasm
(D) Ribosomes
76. In photosynthesis primary electron donors in PSII of the
light reactions is
(A) H2O
(B) O2
(C) Carbondioxide
(D) Ferredoxin
77. The main region of the spectrum utilized for
photosynthesis include
(A) Infrared (IR)
(B) Red
(C) Green
(D) Blue
78. Which of the following is not a substrate of Rubisco?
(A) RuBP (ribulose bis- phosphate)
(B) O2
(C) PGA (phosphogiyceric acid)
(D) CO2
79. CO2 compensation point is
(A) Respiration + photorespiration = photosynthesis
(B) Respiration – photorespiration = photosynthesis
(C) Respiration + photosynthesis = photorespiration
(D) Photosynthesis+ photorespiration=respiration
80. NADPH is
(A) Coupling factor
(B)sucrose precursor
(C) electron carrier molecule
(D) growth regulator
81. Starch
(A) Consists of a chain
of fructose molecules
(B) Is formed from ADPG a nucleotide sugar
(C) Is the main carbohydrate translocated in the plant
(D) Is the main nitrogen source translocated in the
plant
82. Enzyme that is involved in preventing oxidative damage
(A) Phosphorylase
(B) Protease
(C) RuBP carboxylase-oxygenase
(D) Catalase
83. Apples and potatoes turn brown when sliced due to the
activity of
(A) RubP Carboxylase
(B) Tyrosinase
(C) Pyruvate kinase
(D) Amylase
84. Amino acids in a protein molecule are joined together by
(A) Hydrogen bond
(B) Electromagnetic bond
(C) Peptide bond
(D) Anhydro linkage
85. Isoelectric pint is
(A) pH at which positive charge exactly neutralizes the
negative charge
(B) pH at which positive charge is higher than the negative
charge
(C) pH at which negative charge is higher than the positive
charge
(D) Achieved when pH is 7
86. A neucleotide consist of
(A) An organic base
(B) An organic base and a sugar
(C) An organic base and a sugar esterifies with phosphoric
acid
(D) A chain of base-sugar combination
87. Blast disease in rice is caused by
(A) Phyricularia grisea
(C) Sclerotium oryzae
(B) Xanthomonas oryzae
(D) physiological disorder
88. Tikka disease of ground nut is caused by
(A) Aphids
(B) Aspergillus
(C) Cercospora
(D) Nematodes
89. IPM is being adopted rapidly in case of which of the
following crops:
(A) Wheat
(B) Maize
(C) Pearl Millet
90. Pearlmillet originated in:
(A) Africa
(D) Cotton
(B) Central America
(C) Mediterranean Region
91. “ Bhudan Movement” was started by
(A) Mahatma
Gandhi
(C) Acharay Kriplani
(D) India
(B) Vinoba Bhave
(D) Jai Prakash Narayan
92. Community Development Programme was started in which
decade?
(A) 1950s
(B) 1960s
(C) 1970s
(D) 1980s
93. How many contrasting characters were studied by Mendel
in his experiments?
(A) Six
(B) Seven
(C) Five
(D) Eight
94. The commission on Agricultural costs and Prices decides
(A) The cost of seeds
for major crops
(B) The subsidy on the fertilizers
(C) The procurement price of some crops
(D) The selling price of agricultural commodities
95. When two parents, AAbb and aaBB are crossed, what is the
proportion of aabb
individuals in F2
(A) 3/16
(B) 9/16
(C) 2/16
(D) 1/16
96. Which species in one of the progenitor of cultivated
tetraploid cotton:
(A) G.raimondi
(B) G. tomentosum
(B) G. armourianum
(D) G. anomalum
97. The all India notification of varieties is approved by
(A) Central Sub-Committee on Crop Standards, Notification
and Release of Varieities
(B) State Department of Agriculture
(C) National Farmers Commission
(D) Agricultural Universities
98. The number of independent comparisons is indicated by
(A) Mean squares
(B) average
(B) Degrees of freedom
99. A measure of variability is:
(A) Standard deviation
(C) Median
(D) F-ration
(B) Skewness
(D) Critical difference
100.Average height of plants can be known by calculation
the:
(A) Arithmetic mean
(B) Range distribution
(C) Standard error
(D) Least significant difference
101. Which of the following is a qualitative character?
(A) Grain yield
(B) Harvest index
(C) Flower colour
(D) Plant height
102. The number of records occurring in a class is
(A) Average of the class
(B) Mean of the class
(C) Frequency of the class
(D) Range of the calss
103.Mode is
(A) That value of variate which occurs most frequenctly
(B) Value which is located in the middle of the series
(C) Difference between the largest and smallest observation
(D) Deviation of observation from the mean values
104. Hardy-Weinberg demonstrated that
(A) Gene frequencies from one generation to the next are
dependent on dominant genes
under certain condition
(B) Gene frequencies are dependent on recessive genes from
one generation to the next
under certain conditions.
(C) Gene frequencies are dependent on both dominant and
recessive genes from one
generation to the next under certain conditions.
(D) Gene frequencies are not dependent upon dominance or
recessiveness and are
Conserved from one generation to the next under certain
condition
105. 70 S ribosomes are found in
(A) Prokaryotes only
(B) Eukaryotes only
(C) Eukaryotic mitochondria and chloroplast only
(D) Prokaryotes and eukaryotic mitochondria and chloroplast
only
106. cell plate formation takes place in
(A) viruses
(C) plants
(B) animals
(D) in all living organisms
107. Centres of origin of crop plants were given by
(A) NI Vavilov
(B) WA Sinnot
(C)BP Pal
(D) Anton De Bary
108. Chromosomal theory of inheritance was given by
(A) Sutton and Bovery
(B) Mendel
(C) De Vries
109. Pure line theory was given by
(A) Morgan
(C) Mendel
110. The term heterosis given by
(A) Shull
(D) Muller and Stadler
(B) Bateson
(D) Johannsen
(B) De Vries
(C) East
(D) Jenkins
111. Cultivation of hybrid maize was first proposed by
(A) Jones
(B) Beal
(C) Darwin
112. A-line in hybrid cultivars refers to
(A) Restorer line
(C) Cytoplasmic male sterile line
(D) Beadle
(B) Maintainer line
(D) Mutant line
113. A species is said to be endemic if it is
(A) Prone to various diseases
(B) Exists in many ecological regions
(C) Has many eco-types
(D) Is confined to a single geographical area or location
114. Single cross hybrids are
(A) Hybrids from single parent
(B) Hybrids from two parents
(C) Hybrids from more than two parents
(D) Hybrids within a population
115. A self-pollinated crop in which hybrid cultivars are
gaining popularity is
(A) Rice
(B) Wheat
(C) Soybean
(D) chickpea
116. Loss of vigour on selfing cross-pollinated crops is
known as
(A) Hybrid vigour
(B) Genetic erosion
(C) genetic vulnerability
(D) Inbreeding depression
117. In telocentric chromosomes the centromere
(A) Divides the chromosome in two equal arms
(B) Divides the chromosome in two unequal arms
(C) Is at the very tip of the chromosome
(D) Is located at variable positions
118. Totipotency refers to
(A) Ability of somatic cells to develop into a whole new
plant
(B) Ability of dormant seeds to develop into a whole new
plant
(C) Ability of germinating seed to differentiate into whole
plant
(D) Ability of parthenocarpic seeds to produce whole plants
119. Plieotropy refers to
(A) Many genes governing single trait
(B) A single gene governing more than one traits
(C) Many genes governing multiple traits
(D) Genes not governing any trait.
120. Which of the following is not epistasis
(A) One gene overrides the expression of another gene
(B) One gene complements the expression of another gene
(C) One gene modifies the expression of another gene
(D) One gene does not have any effect on the expression of
another gene
121. Operon as described by Jacob and Monod refers to
(A) The structural genes
(B) The operator gene
(C) The repressor gene
(D) Group of genes that are expressed and ___________
122. A class of basic proteins associated with DNA in the
chromosomes are
(A) Histones
(B) Albumins
(C) Globulins
(D) Glutelins
123. Small population size may lead to drifting out
(A) Common alleles
(B) Rare alleles
(C) Less adaptive alleles
(D) Better adapted alleles
124. RAPD technique used in biotechnology refers to
(A) Rapid assessment
of polymorphic DNA
(B) Random amplified
polymorphic DNA
(C) Random assessment
of polymorphic DNA
(D) Technique used
for rapid extraction of DNA
125. Bt-cotton
plants have been genetically engineered by inserting a gene from
(A) Virus (B) Bacterium
(D) Insect (D) Plant
126. The
cultivation of Bt-cotton in India started from which state?
(A) Haryana (B) Punjab
(C) Bihar (D)
Maharashtra
127. DNA library
in a genetic resource center refers to
(A) Maintaining
record of publications on DNA
(B) Conduction
experiments on synthesizing DNA
(C) Storing genomic
information
(D) Storing seeds for
work on molecular biology
128. Degenerate
code refers to
(A) Sequence of
nucleotides on tRNA that complements the codon
(B) When there is one
codon for more than one amino acid
(C) A codon that does
not produce a amino acid
(D) When there is
more than one code for a amino acid
129. Transcription
in genetics refers to
(A) Synthesis of RNA
from DNA
(B) Synthesis of poly
peptides from RNA
(C) Synthesis of new
copies of DNA from existing DNA
(D) Synthesis of DNA
from RNA
130. Restriction
endonucleases are required for
(A) Cutting DNA
molecule at particular position
(B) Cutting DNA
molecule randomly
(C) Joining DNA
molecule
(D) Separating the
two strands of DNA
131. Integrated
disease management is management of disease by
(A) Using certifies
seeds and resistant varieties
(B) Understanding the
abiotic stresses
(C) Providing right
combination of nutrients
(D) Adopting
appropriate combination of biological, cultural, chemical and other
control
Measures
132. Koch’s
postulates is required to be fulfilled
(A) To prove that a
disease has an unknown etiology
(B) To prove that the
best host in infected
(C) To prove that a
given organism is the causal organism of a disease
(D) to prove that
many races of an organism are present
133. Which of the
following is not a sterilizing agent
(A) Mercuric
chloride (B) Ethyl alcohol
(C) Sodium
hypochloride (D) Calcium chloride
134. Transgenic
plants are produced through a process known as:
(A)
Recombination (B) Transfromation
(C) Segregation (D) Synpsis
135. A disinfectant
is often used for
(A) Pasteurizing the
material
(B) Killing the
deep-seated internal infections
(C) Killing the
surface-borne organisms from a tissue/organ
(D) Enhancing the
multiplication of the pathogen
136. Alternative
host for black rust of wheat pathogen is:
(A) Barberi
plant (B) Rice plant
(C) Crotalaria
plant (D) any plant growing in the
hills
137. Cleistogamy
refers to
(A) Fertilization
between distant plants
(B) Fertilization
between flowers of same plant
(C) Fertilization
within an unopened flower
(D) Failure of
fertilization in flowers of same plants
138. Epigeal
germination occurs when
(A) Cotyledons appear
above ground
(B) Cotyledons appear
below ground
(C) Cotyledon appear
both above and below ground
(D) Cotyledons do not
appear at all
139. A buffer
consists of
(A) A weak acid and
weak base (B) Weak acid and strong base
(B) Strong acid and
weak base (D) Strong acid and strong base
140. Seed
germination in many seed species is mediated by
(A) Cytochrome (B) Phytochrome
(C) Anthesin (D) Anthocyanin
141. Globe, Heart
and Torpedo
(A) Describe the
stages of pollen development
(B) Describe the
stages of embryo development
(C) Describe the
stages of seedling development
(D) Describe the
stages of flower development
142. The perisperm
is developed from
(A) Ovum (B) Polar nucler
(C) Nucellus (D) Pollen tube
143. Recalcitrant seeds
(A) Can be dried and stored at low temperature
(B) Cannot be dried and but can be stored at low temperature
(C) Can be dried but not stored at low temperature
(D) Can neither be dried nor stored at low temperature.
144. Normal seedling during germination test evaluation
include
(A) Decayed seedling
(B) Dead Seeds
(C) Intact seedlings
(D) Deformed seedlings
145. Generation system of seed production is
(A) Breeder Seed→ Foundation Seed → Certified Seed
(B) Foundation Seed→ Breeder Seed→ Certified Seed
(C) Certified Seed → Breeder Seed→ Foundation Seed
(D) Nucleus Seed→ Certified Seed → Foundation Seed
146. National Seed Corporation is responsible for producing
(A) Breeder Seed
(B) Registered Seed
(C) Certified Seed
(D) All types of seeds
147. Synthetic or artificial seeds are
(A) Seeds produced in plants after artificial pollination
(B) Seeds produced by transgenic plants
(C) Somatic embryos used in commercial propagation
(D) Seeds produced by plants raised from tissue culture
148. A non-leguminous plant that bears root nodules that can
fix nitrogen is
(A) Sugarcane
(B) Alder
(C) Neem
(D) Banana
149. The conversion of N2 to NH3 is mediated by enzyme
(A) Nitrogenase
(B) Nitrate reductase
(C) Ammonia reductase
(D) Peroxidase
150. Microorganism which can non-symbiotically fix nitrogen
is
(A) Rhizobium
(B) Azotobacter
(C) Chlamydomonas
(D) Aspergillus
Cross matching type questions (nos. 151 to 160). Each
sub-question carries one mark, choose the
correct answer (A,B,C,D,E) for each sub-question
(I,II,III,IV,V) and enter your choice in the
circle(by shading with a HB pencil) on the OMR-answer sheet.
For each wrong answer 0.20
mark will be deducted.
151. (i) Sugarcane red rot
(ii) Barley loose smut
(iii) Pearl millet downy mildew
(A) Sclerospora graminicola
(B) Ascocahyta rabiei
(C) Ustilago nuda
(iv) Chick
pea blight (D) Puccinia striformis
(v) Yellow
rust of wheat (E) Colleotricum
fulcatum
152. (i) Wheat ear
cockie (A) Fungi
(ii) Rice
tungro (B) Nematode
(iii)
Pigeonpea wilt (C) Micronutrient
disorder
(iv)
Chickpea pod borer (D) Virus
(v) Khaira
disease of rice (E) Insect
153. (i) Wheat (A) Pusa bold
(ii)
Rice (B) La bonita
(iii)
Mustard (C) Vijay
(iv)
Maize (D) Kalyansona
(v)
Tomato (E) IR36
154. (i) Central
Rice Research Institute (A) Bangalore
(ii)
Directorate of Oil Seeds Research (B)
Cuttack
(iii)
Directorate of Wheat Research (C)
Kanpur
(iv) India
Institute of Pulses Research (D) Karnal
(v) India
Institute of Horticulture Research (E)
Hyderabad
155. (i)Electron
Microscope (A) Watson and Crick
(ii) Basic
laws of light absorption (B) Millardet
(iii) DNA
structure (C) Knoll and Ruska
(iv) Cell
Theory (D) Lambert Beer
(v) Bordeaux
mixture (E) Schleiden and Schwann
156. (i) Gene (A) Morgan
(ii)
Sex-linked inheritance (B) Barbara Mc
Clintock
(iii)
Linkage (C) Maheshwari
(iv) Anther
culture (D) Johanseen
(v) Jumping
gene (E)Bateson
157. (i)
Vitavax (A) Insecticide
(ii) Cycocel (B) Ripening agent
(iii)
Ethylene (C) Fungicide
(iv)
Cytokinin (D) Growth retardant
(v)
Furadan (E) Root promoting
agent
158. (i) Croous
sativus (A) Clove
(ii)
Curcuma longa (B) saffron
(iii)
Foeniculum vulgare (C) Turmeric
(iv)
Syzygium aromaticum (D) Fenugreek
(v)
Trigonella foenum-graecum (E)
Fennel
159. (i)
Jatropa (A) Insecticide
(ii) Rauvolfia
serpentina (B) Gum
(iii)
Guar (C) Reserpine
(iv)
Vetiver (D) Biofuel
(v) Pyrethrum
(E) Flavouring agent
160. (i) Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO)
(A) India
(ii) International Rice Research Institute (IRRI) (B) Italy
(iii) International Center for Semi-Arid Tropics
(ICRISAT) (C) Meico
(iv) Centro International de Mejoramento de Maiz Trigo
(CIMMYT) (D) Syi
(v) Internal Centre for Agriculture Research in Dry Areas
(ICARDA)
(E) Philippines
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