BHU PET – 2015 Postgraduate Entrance Test (Banaras Hindu University)

 

1. Which one of the following is endodermal in origin?
   (A) Stomodaeum
   (B) Proctodaeum
   (C) Mesenteron
   (D) Rectum

2. In mosquito mouth parts the food canal is formed by–
   (A) Hypopharynx
   (B) Labrun epipharynx
   (C) Labium
   (D) Masillac

3. The female mango leaf hopper lays its eggs–
   (A) Inside the soil
   (B) On the stem
   (C) Inside the leaves
   (D) On the under surface of leaves

4. One spermatocyte produces how many spermatozoa?
   (A) One
   (B) Two
   (C) Three
   (D) Four

5. For preservation purpose the coleopterous adults are pinned through–
   (A) Left elytron
   (B) Right clytron
   (C) Prothorax
   (D) Head

6. Which one of the following is a beetle?
   (A) Trichoderme
   (B) Bioerma
   (C) Trichogramma
   (D) Trogoderma

7. The pink boll worm of cotton belongs to which family?
   (A) Pieridae
   (B) Galleriiidae
   (C) Gelechiidae
   (D) Phycitidae

8. In mustard saw-fly, which one of the following organ is saw like?
   (A) Mandibles
   (B) Ovipositor
   (C) Wings
   (D) Femur

9. DD-136 is a:
   (A) Fungus
   (B) Bacteria
   (C) Protozoa
   (D) Nematode

10. The grubs of Rhinoceros beetle feed on
    (A) Soft tissues of trunk
    (B) Leaves
    (C) Decaying organic matter
    (D) Roots

11. In relation to silk worm DFLs means–
    (A) Disease free larvae
    (B) Disease free larvae
    (C) Disease free layings
    (D) Disease free lymphocytes

12. The honey bee queen has–
    (A) No sting
    (B) Sword or sickle shaped sting
    (C) Barbed sting
    (D) Hexagonal sting

13. What property of water makes it universal solvent?
    (A) Low dielectric constant
    (B) Low molecular weight
    (C) Colourless substance
    (D) Highly polar in nature

14. Hydrophytes have–
    (A) Sunken stomata
    (B) Dumble shaped stomata
    (C) Kidney shaped stomata
    (D) No stomata or functionless stomata

15. Mo is part of the following enzyme–
    (A) Protease
    (B) Lipase
    (C) Nitrogenase
    (D) Amylase

16. One of the following is an example of dead cell–
    (A) Cambium cell
    (B) Phloem cell
    (C) Xylem parenchyma cell
    (D) Xylem vessel

17. Which of the following enzyme has most important role in C4 plants?
    (A) Hexokinase
    (B) Phosphoenol pyruvate carboxylase
    (C) Alcohol dehydrogenase
    (D) Ascorbate peroxidase

18. Photorespiration occurs in presence of–
    (A) Chloroplast and mitochondria
    (B) Mitochondria and Golgibodies
    (C) Chloroplast, peroxisome and mitochondria
    (D) Chloroplast, peroxisome and Golgi bodies

19. Vernalization induces–
    (A) Seed germination
    (B) Vegetative growth
    (C) Seed formation
    (D) Flowering

20. Dimorphic chloroplast present in–
    (A) Wheat
    (B) Sugarcane
    (C) Mustard
    (D) Pea

21. Which one of the following is a herbicide?
    (A) NAA
    (B) Kinclin
    (C) 2-4-D
    (D) Zeatin

22. The following pigment is completely soluble in water–
    (A) Chl a
    (B) Carotene
    (C) Anthocyanin
    (D) Xanthol

23. Activity of hydrolytic enzymes are induced by–
    (A) Ethylene
    (B) Gibberellins
    (C) Cytokinin
    (D) Auxin

24. Which amino acid of the following is the precursor of auxin biosynthesis?
    (A) Tryptophan
    (B) Histidine
    (C) Phenylalanine
    (D) Cysteine

25. The crystal units of montmorillonite are held together by–
    (A) O–O linkage
    (B) O–H linkage
    (C) H–bonding
    (D) NH–bond

26. Which of the following characteristics helps in the identification of alkali soils?
    (A) White/ash color layer of salts on soil surface
    (B) Reddish color spot on soil surface
    (C) Black spot on soil surface
    (D) None of these

27. What amount of energy is released during the decomposition of one gram of dried organic matter added to soil?
    (A) 4–5 kilocalories
    (B) 8–10 kilocalories
    (C) 16–20 kilocalories
    (D) 20–24 kilocalories

28. Which of the following soil texture is highly susceptible to crusting
    (A) Loam
    (B) Clay loam
    (C) Silty clay
    (D) Silty clay loam

29. Immobilization of nitrogen occurs when CN ratio of organic matter is–
    (A) <20:1
    (B) 20–30:1
    (C) >30:1
    (D) >300:1

30. The safest method to dispose of the waste materials is–
    (A) Pouring in the liver
    (B) Pouring in the drain
    (C) Burying in the soil
    (D) Pouring in the pond

31. What is the lowest unit of soil classification?
    (A) Family
    (B) Type
    (C) Plase
    (D) Series

32. Vermicast is also known as–
    (A) Green gold
    (B) Brown gold
    (C) Black gold
    (D) Red gold

33. Which of the following is a complex fertilizer?
    (A) Single superphosphate
    (B) Ammonium sulphate nitrate
    (C) Ammonium phosphate
    (D) Calcium ammonium nitrate

34. Which process is responsible for accumulation of materials in B-horizons?
    (A) Eluviation
    (B) Illuviation
    (C) Carbonation
    (D) Oxidation

35. Which of the following elements is called as nonnutrient element?
    (A) Zinc
    (B) Copper
    (C) Iron
    (D) Molybdenum

36. Assement of soil texture by feel method is done by–
    (A) Ball formation
    (B) Ribbon formation
    (C) Staining
    (D) Drying up

37. Mitochondria are self replicating organelles because they have–
    (A) Thylakoids
    (B) Oxysomes
    (C) Ribosomes
    (D) DNA

38. Which of the following is directly related to genetic engineering?
    (A) Heterosis
    (B) Plasmid
    (C) Mutation
    (D) Apomixes

39. The first recombinant DNA was produced by–
    (A) Sanger
    (B) Pauling
    (C) PanlRerg
    (D) Khorana

40. Inheritance of a quantitative trait was firstly provided in Nicotiana longiflora by–
    (A) Jule (1906)
    (B) Nilsson-Ehle (1909)
    (C) R.M. East (1916)
    (D) Jinks & Maiher

41. For self-pollinated crops the dominance genetic variance in line × tester analysis is equal to–
    (A) 2 σ² sca
    (B) σ² sca
    (C) 4 σ² sca
    (D) σ² sca/2

42. If n = number of parents and s = sample size of the cross the number of crosses required for partial diallel analysis can be obtained by the formula–
    (A) ns/2
    (B) n(ns)/2
    (C) ns
    (D) 2ns

43. Additive genetic variance arises due to–
    (A) Differences between two heterozygotes
    (B) Differences between a heterozygote a homozygote
    (C) Differences between two homozygotes
    (D) None of the

44. First artificial interspecific hybrid was developed by–
    (A) R.W. Allard
    (B) P.H. Harvcy
    (C) Thomas Fairchild
    (D) R.E. Comstock

45. Chromosome numbers usually vary from variety to variety in–
    (A) Sugarcane
    (B) Pea
    (C) Barley
    (D) Rye

46. A pair of homologous of different length is called–
    (A) Homomorphic bivalent
    (B) Heteromorphic bivalent
    (C) Bivalent
    (D) None of them

47. Bridges are seen in–
    (A) Paracentric inversion
    (B) Pericentric inversion
    (C) In both para & pericentric inversions
    (D) None of the above

48. Iriticales are the example of–
    (A) Interspecific hyrbridization
    (B) Intergeneric hybridization
    (C) Varictal hybridiazation
    (D) Southern hybridization

49. To plough one hectare of land in the traditional way, a farmer and his animal have to walk–
    (A) 50 km
    (B) 60 km
    (C) 70 km
    (D) 80 km

50. To meet both qualitative and quantitative demand of rice in future the only option to walk–
    (A) Hybrid rice
    (B) Dwarliighyielding rice
    (C) Acrobic rice
    (D) Designer rice

51. The term Green Revolution was coined by–
    (A) M.S. Swaminathan
    (B) Norman E. Borlaug
    (C) William Gaud
    (D) F.N. Ponnamperuma

52. Average weight of 1 acre furrow slice of soil is:
    (A) 2m lbs
    (B) 3m lbs
    (C) 1.5m lbs
    (D) 3.5m lbs

53. The resistance to herbicides is caused by the increased activity of
    (A) Cytochrome P-450 enzymes
    (B) Riboflavin
    (C) Catalase
    (D) Lactate dehydro

54. The ground water table depth is measured by–
    (A) Gypsum block
    (B) Piezometer
    (C) Neutron probe
    (D) Odometer

55. Mycorrhiza is associated with–
    (A) Stem
    (B) Leaf
    (C) Root
    (D) Flwe

56. Brown manuring is recommended in–
    (A) Sorghum
    (B) Pigeonpea
    (C) Rice
    (D) Mustard

57. Integrated farming system is the component of–
    (A) Farming system research
    (B) Farming system
    (C) Diversified farming
    (D) Specialised farming

58. The best stage for applying gypsum to groundnut is–
    (A) Basal
    (B) One month after sowing
    (C) Pre-flowering
    (D) Pegging

59. World Water Day is–
    (A) 22 March
    (B) 22 April
    (C) 23 May
    (D) 15 June

60. The first cotton hybrid (Shankar-4) was developed in–
    (A) 1979
    (B) 1970
    (C) 1980
    (D) 1985

61. What is the current annual milk production in India (year 2015)
    (A) 98 Million Tonnes
    (B) 108 Million Tonnes
    (C) 132 Million Tonnes
    (D) 152 Million Tonnes

62. What is the rank of India in world buffalo population?
    (A) 1st
    (B) 2nd
    (C) 3rd
    (D) None of the above

63. Milk fat is commonly analyzed by–
    (A) Sochlet apparatus
    (B) Toluene distillation method
    (C) Gerber’s method
    (D) None of the above

64. pH of normal, fresh cow and/or buffalo milk ranges between–
    (A) 6.0 to 6.4
    (B) 6.4 to 6.8
    (C) 6.8 to 7.2
    (D) None of the above

65. Batch pasteurization imply heating of milk for–
    (A) 72°C for 30 minutes
    (B) 72°C for 15 seconds
    (C) 63°C for 30 seconds
    (D) 63°C for 15 seconds

66. The act of mating in horse is called as–
    (A) Covering
    (B) Whelpinning
    (C) Coupling
    (D) Serving

67. Which of the following is not proximate principle?
    (A) Moisture
    (B) Crude Protein
    (C) Crude Fibre
    (D) Minerals and vitamins

68. Which Indian poultry breed is famous for its fighting quality?
    (A) Aseel
    (B) Busra
    (C) Karaknath
    (D) Brahma

69. Ranikhet disease occurs in–
    (A) Cattle and buffalo
    (B) Sheep
    (C) Pig
    (D) Poultry

70. As per PFA standard (1976) table butter should contain cream not less than–
    (A) 60%
    (B) 70%
    (C) 80%
    (D) 90%

71. Ripening is done in the manufacture of–
    (A) Ghee
    (B) Cheese
    (C) Ice-cream
    (D) Khoa

72. Dried skimmed milk powder should not contain moisture more than:
    (A) 12%
    (B) 10%
    (C) 8%
    (D) 4%

73. Which one of the following pathogens produces zoospore?
    (A) Colletotrichum falcatum
    (B) Dreschlera oryzae
    (C) Puccinia tritici
    (D) Pythium aphanidermatum

74. Which one of the following fungicide is systemic in nature
    (A) Dithane M-45
    (B) Captan
    (C) Metalaxyl
    (D) Thiram

75. Which of the following causes Molya disease of cereals?
    (A) Heterodera avenae
    (B) Xiphinema index
    (C) Longidorus elongates
    (D) Anguina tritici

76. The causal agent of Green ear disease of Pearl Millet is–
    (A) Peronosclerospora sorghi
    (B) Hyaloperonospora parasitica
    (C) Plasmopora viticola
    (D) Sclerospora graminicola

77. Teliospores are produced by–
    (A) Bipolaris sorokiniana
    (B) Albugo candida
    (C) Melampspora lini
    (D) Uncinulla necator

78. Penplasmic space is present in cell wall of–
    (A) Gram negative bacteria
    (B) Gram positive bacteria
    (C) L-form bacteria
    (D) Phytoplasma

79. What is produced from Gelidium amansii?
    (A) Peplone
    (B) Agar agar
    (C) Dextrose
    (D) Antibiotics

80. Which one of the following is a bacterial disease?
    (A) Black rot of crucifers
    (B) Black leg of crucifers
    (C) Club root of crucifers
    (D) None of the above

81. Biocontrol mechanism of Trichoderma harzianum is best described by–
    (A) Parasitism
    (B) Predation
    (C) Herbivory
    (D) All of the above

82. What symptoms are produced by a plant virus?
    (A) Mosaic
    (B) Enation
    (C) Necrosis
    (D) All of the above

83. Which of the following is not an asexual fruiting body?
    (A) Sporangium
    (B) Oospore
    (C) Oogonium
    (D) Zoospore

84. Which plant pathogen serve as tool for transgenic plant
    (A) Anguina tritici
    (B) Podosphaera xanthii
    (C) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
    (D) Venturia inaequalis

85. Which of the following is not an attribute of innovation?
    (A) Punctuality
    (B) Compatibility
    (C) Complexity
    (D) Trialability

86. Which is not a step in the extension programme planning?
    (A) Identification of problem
    (B) Analysis of situation
    (C) Collection of facts
    (D) Change in social norms and attitude

87. PLA tools do not involve:
    (A) Survey
    (B) Trend analysis
    (C) Househloid map
    (D) Transect walk

88. Marthandam project was started by–
    (A) Spencer Hatch
    (B) Mahatam Gandhi
    (C) F.L. Brayne
    (D) Ravindranath Tagore

89. Existing data gathered through library or office record is known as:
    (A) Primary data
    (B) Projection
    (C) Secondary data
    (D) Analysis of data

90. An entrepreneur’s primary motivation for starting a business is:
    (A) To make money
    (B) To be independent
    (C) To be powerful
    (D) Lo be famous

91. Adopter category is based on–
    (A) Education
    (B) Interest
    (C) Innovatiness
    (D) Innovation

92. The word “philosophy” is derived from–
    (A) Spanish
    (B) Greek
    (C) French
    (D) Latin

93. The SMCR mode of communication was proposed by–
    (A) Leagons
    (B) Shannon and Weaver
    (C) Wilbur Schramm
    (D) D.K. Berlo

94. The cone of exprience was developed by–
    (A) Edgar Dale
    (B) Thomdike
    (C) Berlo
    (D) Smith

95. When various aspects of culture in society change at unequal rates, the situation will be explained by the theory of–
    (A) Social change
    (B) Globalization
    (C) Sanskritization
    (D) Cultural lag

96. Which of the following is best criteria for choosing teaching aid?
    (A) Attractive and colorful
    (B) Easy to use
    (C) Learner specific relevant to content
    (D) Made by teachers themselves

97. The term Macro Economic was first coined by–
    (A) Keynes
    (B) Ragner Frish
    (C) Alfred Marshall
    (D) Lionel Robbins

98. In which of the following cases, demand curve shifts towards right side?
    (A) Extension of demand
    (B) Contraction of demand
    (C) Decrease in demand
    (D) Increase in demand

99. Incase of relatively inelastic demand the elasticity is:
    (A) E = Infinity
    (B) E = <1
    (C) F >1
    (D) E = 1

100. In case of substitutes, the cross elasticity of demand is–
     (A) Positive
     (B) Negative
     (C) Zero
     (D) Infinity

101. Disposable income is given by–
     (A) Privale income Direct taxes
     (B) Private income + Direct taxes
     (C) Personal income – Direct income
     (D) Personal income + Direct taxes

102. Marginal propensity to consume is always–
     (A) Greater than zero
     (B) Greater than one
     (C) Less than zeo
     (D) None of the above

103. In net worth statement liabilities are on…side
     (A) Left
     (B) Right
     (C) Middle
     (D) Not include

104. SBI was set up in–
     (A) 1945
     (B) 1935
     (C) 1965
     (D) 1982

105. Elasticity of production at the end of zone II of production function is–
     (A) More than 1
     (B) Less than 1
     (C) Equal to 1
     (D) Zero

106. Which of the following is irrational zone of production?
     (A) I zone
     (B) II zone
     (C) III zone
     (D) I and III zone

107. When MRTS = 0, than the products are–
     (A) Complementary
     (B) Supplementary
     (C) Competitine
     (D) Antagonastic

108. If marketed surplus is greter than marketable surplus, than the situation is known as:
     (A) Market efficiency
     (B) Market integration
     (C) Distress sale
     (D) None of the above

109. The pungent principle in chilli is–
     (A) Capvanthin
     (B) Anthocyanin
     (C) Capsaicin
     (D) Calcium oxalates

110. In which vegetable crop curing is done?
     (A) Onion
     (B) Brinjal
     (C) carrot
     (D) Pumpkin

111. Whiptail in cauliflower is due to deficiency of–
     (A) Calcium
     (B) Boron
     (C) Manganese
     (D) Molybdenum

112. Pusa Purple Cluster of Brinjal is resistant to:
     (A) Drought
     (B) Mites
     (C) Purple Blotch
     (D) Bacterial Wilt

113. Pinching is commonly practiced for obtaining better flower production in:
     (A) Rose
     (B) Marigold
     (C) Tuberose
     (D) Jasmme

114. Origin place of Gladiolus is
     (A) South Africa
     (B) Brazil
     (C) Brazil
     (D) Guatemala

115. Which medicinal plant has largest area in India
     (A) Senna
     (B) Opium
     (C) Isabgol
     (D) Periwinkle

116. Total Soluble Soilds (TSS) is measured by–
     (A) Hand Refractometer
     (B) Colorimeter
     (C) Spectrophotometer
     (D) Thennomeic

117. Loose jacketed citrus fruits are:
     (A) Sweet oranges
     (B) Mandarins
     (C) Limes
     (D) Lemons

118. Scientific name of lemon grass is–
     (A) Cymbopogon flexuosus
     (B) Melissa officinalis
     (C) Artemesia pallens
     (D) Mentha citrate

119. The first commercial transgenic vegetable crop is–
     (A) Tomato
     (B) French bean
     (C) Brinjal
     (D) Cow pea

120. Coorg Honey Dew variety of papaya is–
     (A) Dioecious
     (B) Gynodioecous
     (C) Monoecious
     (D) Polygamous