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BHU PET – 2017 Postgraduate Entrance Test (Banaras Hindu University)

  

1. Deficiency of which element causes Khaira disease in rice?  

   (A) Ca  

   (B) Mg  

   (C) B  

   (D) Zn  

2. Identify the plant hormone involved in initiation of rooting in cuttings-  

   (A) evcocel  

   (B) TIBA  

   (C) 2.4-D  

   (D) IBA  

3. Which one of the following is an amino acid?  

   (A) Phytic acid  

   (B) Glutamic acid  

   (C) Abscisic acid  

   (D) Gibberellic acid  

4. The conversion of sugar to pyruvic acid is called-  

   (A) Hydrolysis  

   (B) Glycolysis  

   (C) Phytolysis  

   (D) Cyclosis  

5. The first product of photosynthesis in C3 plant is-  

   (A) Sucrose  

   (B) Oxaloacetate  

   (C) Glycerol  

   (D) Phosphoglyceric acid  

6. Hydrolysis of fat is catalyzed by-  

   (A) Hydrolase  

   (B) Catalase  

   (C) Lipase  

   (D) Amylase  

7. Which one of the following is also known as Diffusion Pressure Deficit?  

   (A) Osmotic pressure  

   (B) Wall pressure  

   (C) Suction pressure  

   (D) Turgor pressure  

8. Which element is related to nitrogen fixation in leguminous plants?  

   (A) Ca  

   (B) Mo  

   (C) B  

   (D) Cd  

9. Which hormone causes leaf senescence and ageing?  

   (A) BA  

   (B) ABA  

   (C) GA  

   (D) IAA  

10. Indian Type Culture Collection (ITCC) is a collection of-  

   (A) Bacteria  

   (B) Algae  

   (C) Fungi  

   (D) Viruses  

11. The term necrosis indicates-  

   (A) Curling  

   (B) Death of cells  

   (C) Blighting  

   (D) Mosaic  

12. The bacterial cell wall is made of-  

   (A) Pectin  

   (B) Muramic acid  

   (C) Chitin  

   (D) Cellulose  

13. Needham is associated with studies on-  

   (A) Seed pathology  

   (B) Epidemiology  

   (C) Nematodes  

   (D) Systemic acquired resistance  

14. The mungbean yellow mosaic virus is transmitted by-  

   (A) Whiteflies  

   (B) Sap  

   (C) Seeds  

   (D) All of the above  

15. The Koch's postulates is essential to establish-  

   (A) Resistance  

   (B) Pathogenicity  

   (C) Susceptibility  

   (D) Hypersensitivity  

16. Which one of the following is a total stem parasite?  

   (A) Loranthus  

   (B) Cuscuta  

   (C) Orabanche  

   (D) Stiga  

17. The black heart of potato is caused due to-  

   (A) Frost injury  

   (B) High light intensity  

   (C) Lack of oxygen  

   (D) Calcium deficiency  

18. Ear cockle disease of wheat is caused by-  

   (A) Anguina tritici  

   (B) Meloidogyne incognita  

   (C) Meloidogyne javanica  

   (D) All of these  

19. Black leg disease of potato is caused by-  

   (A) Fungus  

   (B) Bacteria  

   (C) Virus  

   (D) Nematode  

20. Which type of disease cannot be managed by quarantine?  

   (A) Seed borne  

   (B) Soil borne  

   (C) Air borne  

   (D) All of these  

21. Toxin pyricularin is produced by-  

   (A) Fungus  

   (B) Bacteria  

   (C) Virus  

   (D) Nematode  

22. The branch of Soil Science which deals with origin of soil, its classification and description is called as-  

   (A) Petrology  

   (B) Edaphology  

   (C) Geology  

   (D) Pedology  

23. Relative proportion of sand, silt and clay in soil is called-  

   (A) Soil structure  

   (B) Soil horizon  

   (C) Soil profile  

   (D) Soil texture  

24. Resistance blocks give reasonably good moisture reading in the range of-  

   (A) 0 to 0.8 bar potential  

   (B) -1 to -15 bar potential  

   (C) 0 to -15 bar potential  

   (D) -1 to 0.8 bar potential  

25. Top growth of plant is normally satisfactory as long as the oxygen diffusion rate remains above-  

   (A) 20 10⁻⁸ g/cm²/minute  

   (B) 30-40 10⁻⁸ g/cm²/minute  

   (C) 10-20 10⁻⁸ g/cm²/minute  

   (D) 20-80 10⁻⁸ g/cm²/minute  

26. Negative Charges on organic colloids originates due to presence of-  

   (A) Ketone and aldehyde groups  

   (B) Carboxyl and phenolic groups  

   (C) Exposed crystal edges  

   (D) Isomorphous substitution  

27. Which one of the following is 1:1 type clay mineral?  

   (A) Vermiculite  

   (B) Illite  

   (C) Nacrite  

   (D) Saponite  

28. Measurement of pH of a soil indicates-  

   (A) Total acidity  

   (B) Active acidity  

   (C) Residual acidity  

   (D) Salt replaceable acidity  

29. The favourable climate for the operation of podzolization process is-  

   (A) Warm humid climate  

   (B) Cold humid climate  

   (C) Arid climate  

   (D) Semi-arid climate  

30. The most important feature of soil taxonomy is that it is based upon -  

   (A) Soil forming factors  

   (B) Soil forming processes  

   (C) Measurable soil properties  

   (D) Climate  

31. Biofertilizers are -  

   (A) Organic manure  

   (B) Culture of the microorganisms  

   (C) Green manures  

   (D) Mineral fertilizer  

32. C:N ratio of a normal cultivated soil ranged between-  

   (A) 6 to 8  

   (B) 14 to 16  

   (C) 10 to 12  

   (D) 18 to 20  

33. The Khaira disease of rice is caused due to the deficiency of the following micronutrient-  

   (A) Boron  

   (B) Zinc  

   (C) Molybdenum  

   (D) Nickel  

34. Which one of the following is the largest class in the phylum Arthropoda?  

   (A) Arachnida  

   (B) Crustacea  

   (C) Diplopoda  

   (D) Insecta  

35. Gravid females of Drasicha mangiferae lay eggs.  

   (A) On under surface of leaf  

   (B) On tender shoots  

   (C) Under soil clods  

   (D) On immature fruits  

36. Use trap crops for managing an insect pest population comes under method of-  

   (A) Physical control  

   (B) Cultural control  

   (C) Mechanical control  

   (D) Autocidal control  

37. Mustard sawfly belongs to the order-  

   (A) Diptera  

   (B) Dictyoptera  

   (C) Hymenoptera  

   (D) Neuroptera  

38. Bunchy tops’ in sugarcane are caused by-  

   (A) Root borer  

   (B) Shoot borer  

   (C) Stalk borer  

   (D) Top borer  

39. Polymorphism is found in-  

   (A) Rice gundhi bug  

   (B) Sugarcane leaf hopper  

   (C) Mustard aphid  

   (D) Mango fruit flies  

40. Number of generations of white grub in a year is-  

   (A) One  

   (B) Two  

   (C) Three  

   (D) Four  

41. Eruciform larvae are common in caterpillars belonging to order-  

   (A) Lepidoptera  

   (B) Diptera  

   (C) Coleoptera  

   (D) Isoptera  

42. Many insects undergo hibernation in response to-  

   (A) High temperature  

   (B) Low temperature  

   (C) Darkness  

   (D) High humidity  

43. Which one of the following is insecticide of microbial origin?  

   (A) Cartap  

   (B) Spinosad  

   (C) Fipronil  

   (D) Imidacloprid  

44. Asymmetrical mouth parts are found in-  

   (A) Thrips  

   (B) Termites  

   (C) Weevils  

   (D) Mites  

45. Which one of the following is insectivorous in nature?  

   (A) Callosobruchus chinensis  

   (B) Trogoderma granarium  

   (C) Coccinella septempunctata  

   (D) Rhysopertha dominica  

46. An expenditure on education, public health, social insurance etc. by the Government is which type of public expenditure?  

   (A) Defence expenditure  

   (B) Civil expenditure  

   (C) Economic expenditure  

   (D) Social expenditure  

47. National income ordinarily means-  

   (A) Gross National Product (GNP) at market price  

   (B) Net National Product (NNP) at market price  

   (C) GNP at factor cost  

   (D) NNP at factor cost  

48. Inflationary process in which prices are permitted any control by the Government is called-  

   (A) Open inflation  

   (B) Suppressed inflation  

   (C) Mark-up inflation  

   (D) Stagflation  

49. Consumer Price Index for Agricultural Labour (CPI-AL) is compiled by-  

   (A) Central Statistical Office (CSO)  

   (B) Labour Bureau  

   (C) National Sample Survey Office (NSSO)  

   (D) Economic advisor Ministry of Commerce (EA)  

50. The point of inflection in classical production function lies at point where-  

   (A) Marginal Physical Product (MPP) is maximum  

   (B) Average Physical Product (APP) is maximum  

   (C) MPP = APP  

   (D) MPP = 0  

51. The value of income elasticity of demand (n) for necessary commodity is-  

   (A) n > 1  

   (B) 0 < n < 1  

   (C) n = 0  

   (D) n < 0  

52. Under distress sale what is the relationship between marketed and marketable surplus for a farmer?  

   (A) Marketed surplus = 0  

   (B) Marketed surplus = Marketable surplus  

   (C) Marketed surplus > Marketable surplus  

   (D) Marketed surplus < Marketable surplus  

53. A monopolistic competition is the market structure where-  

   (A) There are large number of sellers selling identical products  

   (B) There are large number of sellers selling differentiated products but close substitutes  

   (C) There is only one seller of the products  

   (D) There is only one buyer of the products  

54. Which one of the following is not among 3R’s of credit to test the economic feasibility?  

   (A) Returns from the investment  

   (B) Repayment capacity  

   (C) Rate of interest  

   (D) Risk bearing ability  

55. Marginal Cost (MC) is equal to -  

   (A) The ratio of Total Cost (TC) and total output (Y)  

   (B) The ratio of change in Total Cost (ΔTC) and change in total output (ΔY)  

   (C) The ratio of change in Total Cost (ΔTC) and change in total input (X)  

   (D) The ratio to Total Cost (TC) and total input (X)  

56. An indifference curve shows the -  

   (A) Various combination of two commodities yielding same level of satisfaction  

   (B) Various combination of two commodities yielding same level of cost  

   (C) Various combination of two commodities yielding decreasing satisfaction  

   (D) Various combination of two commodities yielding decreasing cost  

57. A statement of assets and liabilities of a farm at a point called-  

   (A) Income Statement  

   (B) Balance Sheet  

   (C) Farm Budgeting  

   (D) Cash Flow Statement  

58. For maintenance of soil fertility appropriate cropping system is-  

   (A) Monoculture  

   (B) Multiple cropping  

   (C) Mixed cropping  

   (D) Crop rotation  

59. Which one of the following is day neutral plant?  

   (A) Sunflower  

   (B) Samower  

   (C) Mustard  

   (D) Linseed  

60. Most suitable cereal crop for pH range 4.0-6.0 is-  

   (A) Barley  

   (B) Rice  

   (C) Maize  

   (D) Wheat  

61. Indicate the term not related with potato crop-  

   (A) Bulking  

   (B) Tuberization  

   (C) Silking  

   (D) Suberization  

62. Deficiency symptoms of which nutrient element appears in terminal buds of the plant?  

   (A) Boron  

   (B) Copper  

   (C) Iron  

   (D) Zinc  

63. In general best method of fertilizer application in cereal crops is-  

   (A) Broadcast  

   (B) Broadcast and incorporation  

   (C) Band placement  

   (D) Point placement  

64. Excess amount of which of the following nutrients in soil causes iron and zinc deficiency in plants?  

   (A) Nitrogen  

   (B) Phosphorus  

   (C) Potassium  

   (D) Calcium  

65. Consumptive use of water refers to-  

   (A) Evaporation (E)  

   (B) Transpiration (T)  

   (C) Evaporation (E) + Transpiration (ET)  

   (D) ET + Metabolic needs  

66. For good yield in most crops irrigation is must at-  

   (A) Seedling stage  

   (B) Grand growth stage  

   (C) Flowering stage  

   (D) Ripening stage  

67. Suitable herbicide for weed control in pulse crops is-  

   (A) Isoproturon  

   (B) 2.4-D  

   (C) Atrazine  

   (D) Pendimethalin  

68. Which one of the following is not grassy weed?  

   (A) Eleusine indica  

   (B) Digera arvensis  

   (C) Digitaria sanguinalis  

   (D) Chloris barbata  

69. Convolvulus arvensis weed is classified as-  

   (A) Perennial herbaceous  

   (B) Perennial woody  

   (C) Biennial  

   (D) Annual  

70. It refers to the informal education that a child receives from his family, neighbouring friends and peers-  

   (A) Acculturation  

   (B) Assimilation  

   (C) Socialization  

   (D) Social diffusion  

71. The first KVK was established in -  

   (A) Delhi  

   (B) Bengaluru  

   (C) Pune  

   (D) Puducherry  

72. Learning is strengthened when the learning experience is followed by satisfaction to the learner is-  

   (A) Law of readiness  

   (B) Law of effect  

   (C) Law of exercise  

   (D) Law of belonging  

73. To show relative worth of a new practice over an old one the extension method best suited is-  

   (A) Method demonstration  

   (B) Group discussion  

   (C) Campaign  

   (D) Result demonstration  

74. ATMA operates at-  

   (A) Block level  

   (B) District level  

   (C) State level  

   (D) National level  

75. The spread of mobile phones usage in a social system relates to the concept of-  

   (A) Diffusion  

   (B) Teaching  

   (C) Learning  

   (D) Adoption  

76. Tendency of the people to think of their culture as best is known as-  

   (A) Egoism  

   (B) Ethnocentrism  

   (C) Cultural relativism  

   (D) Illusory superiority  

77. Any relatively permanent change in behavior that occurs as a result of experience is called-  

   (A) Attention  

   (B) Learning  

   (C) Perceiving  

   (D) Teaching  

78. Community Development Programme was started in the year-  

   (A) 1952  

   (B) 1985  

   (C) 1945  

   (D) 1955  

79. The word extension is derived from which of the following languages?  

   (A) French  

   (B) Latin  

   (C) Greek  

   (D) Spanish  

80. Communication is a-  

   (A) Method  

   (B) System  

   (C) Technique  

   (D) Process  

81. This state became the 1st State to reserve 50 % seats for women in the Panchayati Raj Institutions-  

   (A) Madhya Pradesh  

   (B) Rajasthan  

   (C) Bihar  

   (D) Himachal Pradesh  

82. International Flower Market is situated at -  

   (A) Germany  

   (B) Netherlands  

   (C) Columbia  

   (D) Switzerland  

83. Dahlia is propagated through-  

   (A) Corms  

   (B) Rhizome  

   (C) Tubers  

   (D) Seeds  

84. Which is the most commonly used rootstock for rose propagation in North India?  

   (A) R.indica var.odorata  

   (B) R.multiflora  

   (C) R.centifolia  

   (D) R.moschata  

85. Tuberose belongs to the family-  

   (A) Convolvulaceae  

   (B) Amaryllidaceae  

   (C) Compositae  

   (D) Iridaceae  

86. Rock garden is situated at-  

   (A) Bengaluru  

   (B) Hyderabad  

   (C) Chandigarh  

   (D) Saharanpur  

87. Indian shot is the name given to the seeds of-  

   (A) Canna  

   (B) Rose  

   (C) Tulip  

   (D) Gladiolus  

88. Sugar percent in jelly should be-  

   (A) 50-55%  

   (B) 60-65%  

   (C) 65-70%  

   (D) 70-75%  

89. Modified stem of banana is called-  

   (A) Sword sucker  

   (B) Rhizome  

   (C) Water sucker  

   (D) Corm  

90. Pointed gourd is propagated by-  

   (A) Root cutting  

   (B) Stem cutting  

   (C) Seed  

   (D) None of these  

91. Amrapali is a cross between-  

   (A) Neelam × Dasheri  

   (B) Dasheri × Neelam  

   (C) Ratna × Alphonso  

   (D) Dasheri × Alphonso  

92. Guava fruit botanically known as-  

   (A) Drupe  

   (B) Hesperidium  

   (C) Berry  

   (D) Pome  

93. Mango inflorescence contains which type of flowers?  

   (A) Male and hermaphrodite  

   (B) Male and female  

   (C) Male and neutral  

   (D) Female and hermaphrodite  

94. Casein is manufactured from-  

   (A) Corn  

   (B) Rice  

   (C) Milk  

   (D) Wheat  

95. The greenish color of chhana is due to the presence of -  

   (A) Carotene  

   (B) Riboflavin  

   (C) Chlorophyll  

   (D) Lycopene  

96. Which one of the following milk contains maximum amount of lactose?  

   (A) Cow  

   (B) Buffalo  

   (C) Goat  

   (D) Human  

97. The milk-solids-not-fat in skim milk should not be less than -  

   (A) 8.25 %  

   (B) 8.5%  

   (C) 8.7 %  

   (D) 9.0 %  

98. Theoretically the maximum overrun in butter can be-  

   (A) 20%  

   (B) 25%  

   (C) 30%  

   (D) 35%  

99. For production of sterilized cream the fat content of fresh, sweet cream is first standardized to-  

   (A) 15 %  

   (B) 20 %  

   (C) 25 %  

   (D) 30 %  

100. A satisfactory temperature for separation of milk is-  

   (A) 30 °C  

   (B) 35 °C  

   (C) 40 °C  

   (D) 45 °C  

101. In India for ice cream manufacture, widely used stabilizer is-  

   (A) Gelatin  

   (B) Guar gum  

   (C) Carrageenan  

   (D) Sodium alginate  

102. RM value of ghee measures the-  

   (A) Degree of unsaturation  

   (B) Steam volatile water soluble fatty acids  

   (C) Average molecular weight  

   (D) Steam volatile water insoluble fatty acids  

103. The efficiency of milk pasteurization is determined by-  

   (A) Turbidity test  

   (B) Hotis test  

   (C) Helmer test  

   (D) Phosphatase test  

104. During dahi production inoculated milk is normally incubated at 22-25 °C for-  

   (A) 10-12 hours  

   (B) 13-15 hours  

   (C) 16-18 hours  

   (D) 20-22 hours  

105. Which one of the following dried milk is manufactured maximum in India?  

   (A) Skim milk powder  

   (B) Whole milk powder  

   (C) Malted milk powder  

   (D) Infant milk powder  

106. Breeding value of an individual is-  

   (A) Sum of average effect of genes  

   (B) Difference of average effects of genes  

   (C) Difference of additive and dominance effects of genes  

   (D) Sum of additive and dominance effects of genes  

107. If n=number of parents and s=sample size of the cross, the number of crosses required for partial diallel analysis can be obtained by the formula-  

   (A) ns/2  

   (B) n(n-1)/2  

   (C) ns  

   (D) 2ns  

108. Joint scaling test is performed to detect-  

   (A) Presence of dominance  

   (B) Presence of non-additiveness  

   (C) Presence of addictiveness  

   (D) Presence of epistasis  

109. Presence of reverse transcriptase was discovered from AMV virus by -  

   (A) H.Temin and D.Baltimore  

   (B) H.G.Khorana  

   (C) Zaenen et al  

   (D) Maxam and Gilbert  

110. Which one of following is not needed for DNA transcription?  

   (A) Ribosomes  

   (B) Nucleotides  

   (C) DNA  

   (D) Enzymes  

111. If Partial dominance is present at an inhibitory locus the expected phenotypic ratio is-  

   (A) 13:3  

   (B) 12:3:1  

   (C) 9:6:1  

   (D) 7:6:3  

112. The most effective mutagen for cytoplasmic genes is-  

   (A) Ethidium bromide  

   (B) EMS  

   (C) MMS  

   (D) Sodium azide  

113. For exploitation of both additive and non-additive gene effects in cross-pollinated crops the most effective method is-  

   (A) Simple recurrent selection  

   (B) Recurrent selection for SCA  

   (C) Recurrent selection for GCA  

   (D) Reciprocal recurrent selection  

114. Inbred lines can be improved by-  

   (A) Transgressive breeding  

   (B) Mutation breeding  

   (C) Back cross method  

   (D) All of these  

115. The scientists who demonstrated sexuality in bacteria-  

   (A) Leeuwenhoek and Kola  

   (B) Lederberg and Tatum  

   (C) Kircher and Koch  

   (D) Louis Pasteur and Nich  

116. As compared to main bacterial chromosome the size of plasmid is-  

   (A) 1/10  

   (B) 1/20  

   (C) 1/30  

   (D) 1/40  

117. The term mutation breeding was given by-  

   (A) Hugo de Vries  

   (B) Jones  

   (C) Muller  

   (D) Nilsson Ehle  

118. The process involved in water loss from the leaf surface is called-  

   (A) Evaporation  

   (B) Evapotranspiration  

   (C) Guttation  

   (D) Transpiration  

119. The color pigment involved in flowering in plant is-  

   (A) Chlorophyll  

   (B) Anthocyanin  

   (C) Cytochrome  

   (D) Phytochrome  

120. Which one of the following plants is very efficient in photosynthesis?  

   (A) Wheat  

   (B) Sorghum  

   (C) Amaranthus  

   (D) Cicer  

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