1. Chiasmata terminalization is completed during which stage?
A. Diplonema
B. Pachynema
C. Diakinesis
D. Zygonema
2. During interphase, the sequence of sub-stages is
A. S, G1, G2
B. G1, S, G2
C. S, G2, G1
D. G1, G2, S
3. A chromosome with a diffused centromere is called
A. Telocentric chromosome
B. Metacentric chromosome
C. Holocentric chromosome
D. Polytene chromosome
4. Who demonstrated that loss of telomere makes chromosome ends unstable?
A. Muller
B. Morgan
C. Stadler
D. Stern
5. During 1926, inversion was discovered by which of the following?
A. Bridges
B. Belling
C. Sturtevent
D. Morgan
6. The length of chromosome having deletion is
A. Shorter than normal
B. Longer than normal
C. Thicker than normal
D. Thinner than normal
7. ‘U’ triangle is associated with
A. Wheat
B. Cotton
C. Brassica
D. Tobacco
8. Which of the following is diploid species of Brassica
C. juncea
A. carinata
B. nigra
C. napus
9. Somatic chromosome number in Triticum aestivum is
A. 2n = 2x = 14
B. 2n = 4x = 28
C. 2n = 6x = 42
D. 2n = 3x = 21
10. The term chromosome was coined by which of the following?
A. Waldeyer
B. Strausberger
C. Wilson
D. Bovery
11. The individual with two or more different genomes is known as
A. Auto-polyploids
B. Allopolyploid
C. Monoploid
D. Haploid
12. Which of the following is not a part of the chromosome?
A. Centromere
B. Spindle fibre
C. Chromomere
D. Telomere
13. Which will be the shape of chromosome at anaphase for Acrocentric
chromosome?
A. V shape
B. J shape
C. Rod shape
D. L shape
14. Which will be shape of chromosome at anaphase for Telocentric chromosome?
A. V shape
B. J shape
C. Rod shape
D. L shape
15. Chromosome map is also known as
A. Genetic map
B. Linkage map
C. Both A) and B)
D. None of these
16. Who gave the terms cis and trans for coupling and repulsion phase of linkage
A. Muller
B. Hutchinson Morgan
C. Haldane
D. None of the above
17. Ability of a gene to express itself in the individuals carrying that gene in the
appropriate genotype.
A. Pleiotropy
B. Penetrance
C. Expressivity
D. None of the above
18. "A" blood group will be produced by the following genotypes
A. IAIA
B. IAIO
C. Both A) and B)
D. IAIB
19. Cytoplasmic male sterility is not used in _______ crops
A. Grain
B. Fruit crop
C. Vegetatively propagated
D. None of above
20. Which among the following is not a Fur colour of Rabbits?
A. Himalayan
B. Asian
C. Agouti
D. Albino
21. The period from one cell division to the next cell division is called as
A. Cell period
B. Grand period
C. Cell cycle
D. Cell generation
22. Meiosis leads to the development of
A. Gamete
B. Zygote
C. Organ
D. Root
23. Nucleolus disappears at the end of
A. Prophase
B. Metaphase
C. Anaphase
D. Telophase
24. The process of division of cytoplasm is known as
A. Cytokinesis
B. Karyokinesis
C. Idiogram
D. None of the above
25. Another name of Mitosis is
A. Meiotic division
B. Reductional division
C. Heterotypic division
D. Somatic division
26. Mitosis does not provide opportunities for
A. Segregation
B. Recombination
C. Crossing over
D. All of the above
27. At which of the following stage, chromosomes reach opposite poles?
A. Prophase
B. Metaphase
C. Anaphase
D. Telophase
28. Which of the following surrounded by double membranes?
A. Mitochondria
B. Chloroplasts
C. Nucleus
D. All of the above
29. Who coined the term "Mitochondria"?
A. Hollicker
B. C. Benda
C. Montgomery
D. Theodore Boveri
30. The Power house of the cell is
A. Mitochondria
B. Chloroplasts
C. Nucleus
D. All of the above
31. Digestive enzymes are contained in
A. Lysosomes
B. Ribosomes
C. Plastids
D. All of these
32. Leucoplasts are important for storage of
A. Lipids
B. Starch
C. Proteins
D. All of the above
33. Which of the following can cause the change in chromosome structure?
A. Translocation
B. Duplication
C. Deletion
D. All of the above
34. Aneuploidy refers to
A. Trisomic
B. Monosomic
C. Nullisomic
D. All of the these
35. Linkage between dominant allele of one gene with the recessive allele of
another gene is known as
A. Coupling phase
B. Repulsion phase
C. Repulsive phase
D. Compulsive phase
36. Heterozygous individuals are represented as
A. Rr
B. RR
C. Rr
D. None of the above
37. Johannsen coined the term (s)
A. Genotype
B. Phenotype
C. Gene
D. All of these
38. Mendel gave the law of
A. Law of segregation
B. Law of independent assortment
C. Both A) and B)
D. Law of dominance
39. Ratio of Polymeric gene action is
A. 9:3:4
B. 9:6:1
C. 12:3:1
D. 9:3:3:1
40. Epistasis is also known as
A. Intergenic interaction
B. Interallellic interaction
C. Interlocus interaction
D. All of the above
41. A nucleotide consists of which of the following?
A. Base + pentose
B. Base + pentose sugar + phosphate
C. Organic base + phosphate
D. Pentose + phosphate
42. How many hydrogen bonds join cytosine and guanine in a DNA molecule?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
43. The process of DNA synthesis from RNA is known as
A. Reverse transcription
B. Reverse translation
C. Transcription
D. Reverse mutation
44. According to the concept of central dogma genetic information flows
A. DNA → Protein
B. DNA → RNA →Protein
C. DNA ↔ RNA → Protein
D. RNA → DNA →Protein
45. Mutation was first discovered by
A. Muller
B. de Vries
C. Seth Wright
D. Stadler
446. Which of the following mutagens is a base analogue?
A. EMS
B. MMS
C. 5 BU
D. EES
47. A gene which exhibits higher mutation rate than other gene is called
A. Mutator gene
B. Antimutator gene
C. Mutable gene
D. Hot spot
48. Mutations have which of the following characteristics?
A. They are recessive & Harmful
B. They are random & recurrent
C. Often, mutations show pleiotropy
D. All of the above
49. Based on Survival mutation can be classified into
A. Lethal
B. Sub-lethal
C. Sub-vital
D. All of the above
50. Sterility property of triploids are useful in production of seedless
A. Watermelons
B. Banana
C. Apple
D. All of above
51. Frequency with which a gene express itself in the individual that carry it in the
appropriate genotype
A. Pleiotropy
B. Penetrance
C. Expressivity
D. None of the above
52. Mitosis takes place in
A. Megaspore
B. Pollen mother cells
C. Pollen
D. Both A) and C)
53. Nucleolus reappears at the end of
A. Prophase
B. Metaphase
C. Anaphase
D. Telophase
54. Another name of Simple epistasis is
A. Dominant epistasis
B. Supplementary epistasis
C. Complementary epistasis
D. Duplicate epistasis
55 Purines includes
A. Adenine
B. Thymine
C. Guanine
D. Both A) and C)
56. Pyrimidines include
A. Cytosine
B. Thymine
C. Uracil
D. All of these
57. The term translation is related to synthesis of which of the following?
A. DNA
B. Protein
C. RNA
D. Both b) and c)
58. Methyl methane sulphonate is
A. Hormone
B. Base Analogue
C. Physical mutagen
D. Chemical Mutagen
59. Polygenic characters are governed by
A. Few genes
B. Single gene
C. Several genes
D. All of these
60. Chromosome number of buckwheat is
A. 16
B. 18
C. 22
D. 28
61. Gregg is a male sterile line of
A. Cotton
B. Maize
C. Barley
D. Soybean
62. Ideotype term was given by
A. Mock and Pearce
B. Donald
C. Rasmuson
D. Singh et al
63. BOAA content is normal Khesari line is nearly
A. 0.55%
B. 2%
C. 3%
D. 8%
64. CARORED is variety of
A. Tomato
B. Potato
C. Brinjal
D. Cotton
65. The term noblisation is related to which of the following?
A. Wheat
B. Rice
C. Sugarcane
D. Soybean
66. In general, the maximum heterosis occurs in which of following
A. Composite
B. Synthetics
C. Single cross
D. Double cross
67. Notch-1 and Notch-2 are the mutant genotype of which of the following crops?
A. Wheat
B. Rice
C. Sugarcane
D. Barley
68. Triploid production is done by
A. Anther culture
B. Callus culture
C. Ovary culture
D. Endosperm culture
69. Which of the following is/are C4 plant (s)?
A. Sugarcane
B. Maize
C. Sorghum
D. All of the above
70. Chromosome substitution is easiest in
A. Monosomic plants
B. Nullisomic plants
C. Tetrasomic plants
D. None of the above
71. Which of the following has/have chromosome doubling action?
A. Colchicine
B. Nitrous oxide
C. 8-hydroxiquinoline
D. All of the above
72. Univalent shift generally occur in
A. Monosomic plants
B. Nullisomic plants
C. Tetrasomic plants
D. None of the above
73. The condition when individual carrying other than diploid chromosome
A. Nullisomics
B. Monosomics
C. Polyploids
D. Heteroploidy
74. Generally random drift occur in
A. Large population
B. Small population
C. Huge population
D. None of the above
75. Pistil mature prior to stamens is called
A. Protandry
B. Protogyny
C. Heterogamy
D. All of the above
76. The formula for all possible single with n number of parents is
A. n(n-1)
B. n(n-1)/2
C. n(n-1)2/2
D. none of the above
77. The formula for all possible double crosses with n number of parents is
A. n(n-1)/2
B. n(n-1)(n-2)(n-3)/4
C. n(n-1)(n-2)(n-3)/8
D. n(n-1)(n-2)/2
78. The formula for all possible three-way crosses with n number of parents is
A. n(n-1)/2
B. n(n-1)(n-2)(n-3)/4
C. n(n-1)(n-2)(n-3)/8
D. n(n-1)(n-2)/2
79. Prevention of self-pollination through physical barriers is called
A. Homogamy
B. Dichogamy
C. Cleistogamy
D. Herkogamy
80. In recurrent apomixis embryo is developed from
A. Haploid cell
B. Diploid cell
C. Both A) and B)
D. None of the above
81. In India seed certification is
A. Compulsory
B. Voluntary
C. Sometime compulsory and sometime voluntary
D. Compulsory every time
82. Labeling of seed packages under seed act is
A. Compulsory
B. Voluntary
C. Sometime compulsory and sometime voluntary
D. Compulsory every time
83. Minimum of field inspection for Sorghum hybrid are
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 3
84. AGMARK is related to
A. Maximum seed production
B. Quality issues
C. Disease control
D. All of the above
85. The seed sample sent for analysis by the certification agencies is called
A. Submitted sample
B. Working sample
C. Primary sample
D. Certified sample
86. Seeds less than half size, during purity analysis is considered as
A. Pure seeds
B. Live seeds
C. Inert matter
D. None of the above
87. Grow out test is related to
A. Physical purity
B. Genetic purity
C. Both A) and B)
D. None of the above
88. One gram of nitrogen is present in how many gram of protein?
A. 6.25
B. 3.25
C. 8.25
D. 9.25
89. Which of the following tests in wheat indicates baking quality?
A. Mixogram
B. Sedimentation rate
C. Alveogram
D. Polshenke value
90. Sedimentation value in wheat indicates which of the following
A. Protein content
B. Gluten content
C. Baking quality
D. Gluten strength
91. Storage protein SFA- 8 is rich in which of the following amino acids?
A. Cystein
B. Methionine
C. Lysine
D. Both (a) and (b)
92. Cotton seed meal contains which of the following antinutritional factor?
A. Aflatoxin
B. Glucosinolates
C. BOAA
D. Gossypol
93. Amylose content in rice grains is governed by which of the following?
A. Plasmagenes
B. Polygens
C. A single gene
D. Mainly the environment
94. Tag of which colour is issued for certified seed?
A. Yellow
B. Red
C. Blue
D. Green
95. Tetrazolium test mostly used to assess which of the following?
A. Vigour of seed
B. Viability of seed
C. Germination of seed
D. Dormancy
96. Aruna is famous mutant variety of which of the following crop ?
A. Lentil
B. Castor
C. Sunflower
D. Safflower
97. TN-1 rice variety was introduced from which of the following country?
A. Tokoyo
B. Philippines
C. Taiwan
D. Africa
98. Tag of which colour is issued for breeder seed?
A. Yellow
B. Red
C. Golden Yellow
D. Green
99. Tag of which colour is issued for foundation seed?
A. Yellow
B. Red
C. White
D. Green
100. For evaluation of large number of germplasms which design is used?
A. Randomized Block Design (RBD)
B. Complete Randomized Design (CRD)
C. Augmented Design
D. All of the above
