1. Supply curves normally slope upward. An exception to this rule is—
(A) Wine
(B) Labour
(C) Oil
(D) The short run
2. Which function creates the “Possession Utility” in marketing process?
(A) Storage
(B) Transportation
(C) Processing
(D) Buying and Selling
3. The difference between average total cost and average fixed cost shows—
(A) Normal profits
(B) Implicit costs
(C) Average variable cost
(D) Opportunity costs
4. The opportunity cost of a factor of production is—
(A) What it is earning in its present use
(B) What it can earn in the long period
(C) What has to be paid to retain it in its present use
(D) What it can earn in some other use
5. The day-to-day functioning of a regulated market is supervised by—
(A) Market committee
(B) Sub-market committee
(C) Subcommittee of Market committee
(D) Marketing board
6. Major commercial banks were nationalized in—
(A) 1965
(B) 1967
(C) 1971
(D) 1969
7. Which of the following is an implicit cost of production?
(A) Wage of labour
(B) Charges of electricity
(C) Interest on owned money capital
(D) Payment for material
8. The isoquants are convex to origin because of—
(A) Diminishing MRTS
(B) Increasing MRTS
(C) Increasing returns to scale
(D) Decreasing returns to scale
9. Which one of the following is NOT part of the laws of returns?
(A) Law of increasing returns
(B) Law of constant returns
(C) Law of decreasing returns
(D) Law of maximum returns
10. The expansion path of production theory is analogous in consumption theory to—
(A) Price consumption line
(B) Engel curve
(C) Income consumption line
(D) Budget constraint line
11. The difference between the demand for credit and its supply is—
(A) Repayment capacity
(B) Credit gap
(C) Credit worthiness
(D) Credit need
12. In the stage of production, the desired line of action is to—
(A) Increase variable resources
(B) Decrease variable resources
(C) Decrease fixed resources
(D) No change in fixed/variable resources but change price structure
13. Relatively high salt-tolerant crop is—
(A) Pigeon pea
(B) Chickpea
(C) Barley
(D) Wheat
14. If only one irrigation is available for wheat, it should be applied at—
(A) CRI
(B) Tillering
(C) Heading stage
(D) Jointing
15. Crops grown between two main season crops are known as—
(A) Cash crop
(B) Guard crop
(C) Catch crop
(D) Intercrop
16. Which one is NOT a true cereal crop?
(A) Barley
(B) Buckwheat
(C) Triticale
(D) Rice
17. CRRI is located at—
(A) Hyderabad
(B) Coimbatore
(C) Bangalore
(D) Cuttack
18. Soil property unaffected by tillage is—
(A) Structure
(B) Texture
(C) Bulk density
(D) Porosity
19. Recommended herbicide for weed control in pea crop is—
(A) 2,4-D
(B) Pendimethalin
(C) Rutachore
(D) Pruponil
20. Synthetic chemical belonging to auxins is—
(A) Endosulfan
(B) 2,4-D
(C) Isoproturon
(D) Atrazine
21. The term “pegging” is associated with—
(A) Potato
(B) Tobacco
(C) Cotton
(D) Groundnut
22. Photorespiration is highest in—
(A) Rice
(B) Maize
(C) Sorghum
(D) Pearl millet
23. If saturation vapour requirement is 80 g but actual vapour present is 60 g, the Relative Humidity is—
(A) 60%
(B) 70%
(C) 75%
(D) 80%
24. Gas with the highest content in pure air is—
(A) Nitrogen
(B) Oxygen
(C) Carbon dioxide
(D) Carbon monoxide
25. Small-sized holes on leaves are made by—
(A) Cabbage worm
(B) Flea beetle
(C) Grasshopper
(D) Bihar hairy caterpillar
26. Muga silkworm is cultivated in—
(A) Karnataka
(B) Uttarakhand
(C) Assam
(D) U.P.
27. Royal jelly is secreted by—
(A) Nurse bees
(B) Queens
(C) Young workers
(D) Drones
28. Only larval stage is damaging in—
(A) Khapra beetle
(B) Pulse beetle
(C) Rice weevil
(D) Lesser grain borer
29. Correct dose of deltamethrin to spray over field crop is—
(A) 50–60 g ai/ha
(B) 12–15 g ai/ha
(C) 80–100 g ai/ha
(D) 30–50 g ai/ha
30. Epipyrops is a parasitoid of—
(A) Sugarcane root borer
(B) Sugarcane top shoot borer
(C) Sugarcane black bug
(D) Sugarcane leaf hopper
31. Pheromone of pine beetles is—
(A) Gossyplure
(B) Bombykol
(C) Methsluegenol
(D) Frontalin
32. Which crop generally escapes damage of mustard aphid?
(A) Toria
(B) Yellow sarson
(C) Brown sarson
(D) Rye
33. When is a pest called a regular pest?
(A) GEP is below EIL or ET
(B) GEP touches EIL and ET in some years
(C) GEP is higher than EIL and ETL
(D) GEP always touches EIL and ETL
34. The spine or group of bristles on the humeral angle of moth hindwings is called—
(A) Calypter
(B) Jugum
(C) Frenulum
(D) Tegula
35. Ptilinum is found in pupae of—
(A) Lepidoptera
(B) Hymenoptera
(C) Coleoptera
(D) Diptera
36. Arolium is—
(A) The mesal lobe of limb segment
(B) The median terminal lobe of an insect’s foot
(C) The proximal segment of tarsus
(D) The third segment of telopodite
37. CO-205 was the first commercial interspecific hybrid of—
(A) Cotton
(B) Maize
(C) Sugarcane
(D) Bajra
38. In plant breeding, colchicine is used for—
(A) Chromosome doubling
(B) Chromosome elimination
(C) Point mutations
(D) Hormone production
39. Sunflower originated in—
(A) India
(B) China
(C) North America
(D) Mexico
40. Heterobeltiosis is the superiority of F1 hybrid over—
(A) Mean parental value
(B) Any parent
(C) Better parent
(D) Best standard
41. R.A. Fisher proposed analytical approach for estimating genotypic variance components in—
(A) 1908
(B) 1918
(C) 1928
(D) 1938
42. Cross-pollination in pearl millet (bajra) is due to—
(A) Protandry
(B) Protogyny
(C) Self-incompatibility
(D) Cleistogamy
43. Micropropagation leads to the production of—
(A) Disease-resistant plants
(B) Disease-susceptible plants
(C) Disease-escaping plants
(D) Disease-free plants
44. In India, transgenic technology has been commercially exploited in—
(A) Cotton
(B) Maize
(C) Brinjal
(D) Sorghum
45. The stage at which chromosomes orient on spindle fibres is called—
(A) Metastage
(B) Metamorphosis
(C) Metaphase
(D) Metastasis
46. Grain colour in wheat is—
(A) Monogenic
(B) Digenic
(C) Oligogenic
(D) Polygenic
47. Which of the following crops is cross-pollinated?
(A) Wheat
(B) Gram
(C) Onion
(D) Rice
48. Universal donor blood group in humans is—
(A) A
(B) B
(C) AB
(D) O
49. Red colour of tomato is due to—
(A) Lycopene
(B) Anthocyanin
(C) Carotene
(D) Quercetin
50. All cole crops belong to family—
(A) Cruciferae
(B) Umbelliferae
(C) Brassicaceae (modern name but key uses A)
(D) Solanaceae
51. Potato is native to—
(A) Europe
(B) South America
(C) Africa
(D) Asia
52. Recommended daily leafy vegetables intake is—
(A) 70 g
(B) 115 g
(C) 300 g
(D) 250 g
53. Apple is mainly propagated by—
(A) Seed
(B) Cuttings
(C) Layering
(D) Grafting
54. Variety of mango highly susceptible to spongy tissue is—
(A) Dasahari
(B) Langra
(C) Alphonso
(D) Amrapali
55. Kinnow is a hybrid between—
(A) King orange × Willow leaf mandarin
(B) Mandarin × Sweet orange
(C) Sweet orange × Sweet orange
(D) Sweet lime × Sweet orange
56. Banana is a—
(A) Monocot herb
(B) Monocot shrub
(C) Monocot tree
(D) Dicot herb
57. Famous “Rock Garden” is situated at—
(A) Bangalore
(B) Hyderabad
(C) Chandigarh
(D) Saharanpur
58. Most commonly used rootstock for rose propagation in North India—
(A) Rosa indica var. odorata
(B) Multiflora
(C) Centifolia
(D) Moschata
59. Chrysanthemum is propagated through—
(A) Terminal cuttings
(B) Hardwood cuttings
(C) Semi-hardwood cuttings
(D) Layering
60. Tuberose is propagated through—
(A) Seed
(B) Terminal cutting
(C) Bulb
(D) Layering
61. In Puccinia graminis tritici, the 2-celled resting spores are—
(A) Aeciospores
(B) Basidiospores
(C) Teleutospores
(D) Uredospores
62. Spores produced as a result of budding are called—
(A) Ahurosopres (Blastoconidia)
(B) Conidiospores
(C) Blastospres
(D) Chlamydospores
63. Fungus producing cleistothecia with appendages having a bulbous base is—
(A) Phyllactinia
(B) Erysiphe
(C) Uncinula
(D) Podosphaera
64. Acervuli are formed by—
(A) Colletotrichum
(B) Penicillium
(C) Cercospora
(D) Helminthosporium
65. Microbial growth media are sterilized in—
(A) Oven
(B) Laminar flow chamber
(C) Autoclave
(D) Centrifuge
66. Nutrient agar is generally used for culturing—
(A) Fungi
(B) Bacteria
(C) Nematodes
(D) Yeasts
67. “Loose smut disease of wheat” is—
(A) Soil-borne
(B) Vector-borne
(C) Seed-borne
(D) Air-borne
68. Which of the following is NOT an obligate plant pathogen?
(A) Uredinales (Rusts)
(B) Ustilaginales (Smuts)
(C) Erysiphales (Powdery mildews)
(D) Peronosporales (Downy mildews)
69. Erwinia carotovora causes—
(A) Soft rot
(B) Wilt
(C) Dry rot
(D) Collar rot
70. Father of modern plant pathology is—
(A) Anton de Bary
(B) W.F. Stanley
(C) Robert Koch
(D) J.G. Horsfall
71. Completely closed, round fruiting bodies without opening for ascospore liberation are—
(A) Perithecium
(B) Apothecium
(C) Cleistothecium
(D) Ascostroma
72. Basipetal arrangement of sporangia, knob-shaped haustoria and hypertrophied inflorescence in mustard is produced by—
(A) Albugo candida
(B) Sclerospora graminicola
(C) Phytophthora infestans
(D) Plasmopara viticola
73. Which of the following nutrients is fast mobile?
(A) Nitrogen
(B) Calcium
(C) Sulphur
(D) Potassium
74. Flowering in plants is controlled by—
(A) Photoperiodism
(B) Vernalization
(C) Fumigation
(D) Solarization
75. First product of photosynthesis in sugarcane is—
(A) Malic acid
(B) Aspartic acid
(C) Pyruvic acid
(D) Oxaloacetic acid
76. Which gas is responsible for global warming?
(A) Carbon dioxide
(B) Carbon monoxide
(C) Sulphur dioxide
(D) Nitrous oxide
77. Which of the following reduces water loss from leaf surface?
(A) Kaoline (Kaolin clay)
(B) NAA
(C) H₂SO₄
(D) Zeatin
78. Which PGR is related to dormancy?
(A) IAA
(B) IBA
(C) Abscisic acid
(D) AMO-1618
79. Which enzyme contains molybdenum?
(A) Nitrogenase
(B) Peroxidase
(C) Superoxidease
(D) Carbonic anhydrase
80. Organic substance transport in phloem can be demonstrated by—
(A) Defoliation
(B) Root pressure
(C) Grafting
(D) Ringing the stem
81. Hormone related to growth is—
(A) MH
(B) 2,4-D
(C) Cycocel
(D) GA (Gibberellic Acid)
82. Leaf water potential is measured by—
(A) Promoter
(B) Pressure bomb
(C) Calorimeter
(D) Osmometer
83. Which is a C4 plant?
(A) Spinach
(B) Barley
(C) Chickpea
(D) Amaranthus
84. Production efficiency in crop production is affected by—
(A) Tillage
(B) Nitrogen application
(C) Light
(D) Plant population
85. Sulphur content (%) in Single Super Phosphate (SSP) is—
(A) 6
(B) 9
(C) 12
(D) 15
86. Land capability class suitable for cultivation with intensive soil conservation is—
(A) Class II
(B) Class III
(C) Class V
(D) Class VI
87. Degraded land in India occupies an area (mha) of—
(A) 118
(B) 149
(C) 175
(D) 225
88. In India, Laterite soils are commonly found in—
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Karnataka
(C) Himachal Pradesh
(D) Madhya Pradesh
89. Among salt-affected soil classes, highest soil permeability is in—
(A) Saline soils
(B) Alkali soils
(C) Saline-alkali soils
(D) Degraded-alkali soils
90. In natural soils crops absorb added phosphates as—
(A) H-PO
(B) HPO
(C) H-PO₁ + HPO
(D) PO
91. CEC (m.e/100 g) for humic colloids is—
(A) 3–50
(B) 20–80
(C) 50–120
(D) 100–300
92. Gypsum blocks measure soil moisture tension most efficiently in the range—
(A) 15–31
(B) 1–15
(C) 0.33–15
(D) 0–0.85
93. In acid soils, availability of which nutrient is quite low?
(A) Fe
(B) Mn
(C) Zn
(D) Mo
94. In U.S. Soil Taxonomy, the number of soil orders is—
(A) 10
(B) 11
(C) 12
(D) 13
95. Active factors of soil formation are—
(A) Climate and Parent material
(B) Parent material and Relief
(C) Climate and parent material
(D) Climate and Biosphere
96. SiO₂ content (%) of sub-basic igneous rocks is—
(A) <55
(B) 55–60
(C) 60–55 (correct in key; standard value range = 52–63%)
(D) >65
97. By-product of cream is—
(A) Skim milk
(B) Butter milk
(C) Lassi
(D) Whey
98. NDDB stands for—
(A) National Dairy Development Board
(B) National Development Dairy Board
(C) National Directorate Dairy Board
(D) National Division Dairy Board
99. Milk fat percent can be increased by feeding more—
(A) Concentrates
(B) Soybean
(C) Feed additives
(D) Fibre
100. Colostrum coagulates on heating due to high content of—
(A) Carotene
(B) Casein
(C) Fat
(D) Albumin and globulin
101. Which stomach of ruminants resembles the true stomach of non-ruminants?
(A) Rumen
(B) Reticulum
(C) Omasum
(D) Abomasum
102. Temperature required for homogenisation of milk is—
(A) 30°C
(B) 60°C
(C) 70°C
(D) 80°C
103. Crazy Chick disease is caused by deficiency of—
(A) Vitamin B
(B) Calcium
(C) Vitamin E
(D) Vitamin C
104. Which feed is better utilised?
(A) Ground feed
(B) Whole feed
(C) Pelleted feed
(D) Mesh feed
105. Richest source of fibre is—
(A) Wheat
(B) Hay legume
(C) Wheat bran
(D) Silage
106. Which one has the lowest crude protein content?
(A) Fish meal
(B) Blood meal
(C) Soybean meal
(D) Cotton seed meal
107. Kangayam and Hallikar breeds are—
(A) Good milers
(B) Good draft animals
(C) Good beef animals
(D) Good dual-purpose animals
108. Breed famous for highest fat percentage in milk—
(A) Murrah
(B) Surti
(C) Bhadawari
(D) Mehsana
109. What is wrong with the Polio campaign?
(A) It is not based on felt needs of people
(B) It is very economical
(C) It is focused on decision-makers
(D) It is not useful to people
110. When an extension worker goes to a village, the most important thing to carry is—
(A) The textbook of agronomy
(B) Cell-phone
(C) Camera
(D) Address-book
111. At the "Interest" stage of adoption, the individual seeks—
(A) More information about the innovation
(B) Information from mass media
(C) To meet the agriculture minister
(D) To discuss innovation with family
112. An extension programme should be developed by—
(A) The extension worker
(B) The farmers
(C) Specialists from university
(D) Farmers and extension worker in collaboration
113. In a result demonstration, the most important step is—
(A) Preparing a VCD for the local people
(B) Giving information to people
(C) Selecting the appropriate farmer
(D) Arranging group-meeting facilities
114. Most suitable for use in a meeting of about 20 farmers—
(A) Radio announcement
(B) Telecast
(C) Satellite communication
(D) Flip-charts
115. Most suitable for creating awareness about date of agronomist's visit—
(A) Newspaper advertisement
(B) Radio announcement
(C) Posters
(D) Flip-charts
116. Most suited item for a method demonstration—
(A) Plant growth
(B) Effect of NPK on wheat yield
(C) Improved way of ploughing
(D) High-yielding variety of rice
117. Most important skill for extension workers—
(A) Seed sowing skill
(B) Skill in identifying diseases
(C) Communication skill
(D) Post-harvest technology skill
118. Subject closest to Extension Education—
(A) Rural sociology
(B) Agronomy
(C) Entomology
(D) Plant breeding
119. Extension work was started first in—
(A) Animal science
(B) Applied science
(C) Art
(D) Applied science and art
120. Extension education is—
(A) Basic science
(B) Applied science
(C) Art
(D) Applied science and an art
%20(2).png)
0 Comments