BHU PET – 2011 Postgraduate Entrance Test (Banaras Hindu University)

1. Father of economics is –

A. A.C. Pigou
B. Samuelson
C. Alfred Marshall
D. Applied science and an art

2. Keynes theory in distribution studies –

A. Rent
B. Interest
C. Management
D. Profit

3. Which of the following is not an assumption of perfect competition –

A. Large number of buyers and sellers
B. Perfect knowledge about market
C. Heterogeneous product
D. Free entry and exit

4. Increase in quantity demanded because other consumers are also using it is called –

A. Increase effect
B. Veblen effect
C. Snob effect
D. Bandwagon effect

5. Which of the following is not an assumption of Indifference Curve (IC)?

A. Non-satiety
B. Parallel IC
C. Transitivity
D. Diminishing MRS

6. Anything which destroys utility is called –

A. Production
B. Consumption
C. Stock resources
D. Variable resources

7. Economics is a science of wealth in relation to man is defined by –

A. A.C. Pigou
B. J.N. Efferson
C. J.M. Keynes
D. J.S. Mill

8. Indifference curve measures –

A. Different utility
B. Marginal utility
C. Equal utility
D. None of these

9. Emphasis on material welfare of economics was given by –

A. Robbins
B. Pigou
C. Marshall
D. Keynes

10. Efficiency of resources is studied under –

A. Micro economics
B. Macro economics
C. Production economics
D. Welfare economics

11. Anything which has utility is called –

A. Commodity
B. Wealth
C. Income
D. Consumption

12. Consumer’s equilibrium under indifference curve –

A. MRSy = Price ratio
B. MRSxy = Inverse price ratio
C. MRSy = Price of X
D. MR = MC

13. Hemophilia in man is governed by –

A. One pair recessive gene
B. Two pair recessive gene
C. One pair dominant gene
D. Two pair dominant gene

14. Number of hydrogen bonds between guanine and cytosine in DNA –

A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four

15. The intra-allelic interaction resulted –

A. Epistatic variance
B. Dominance variance
C. Additive variance
D. Environmental variance

16. NBPGR is located at –

A. Karnal
B. New Delhi
C. Hyderabad
D. Kolkata

17. The condition in which a gene governs more than one trait is –

A. Polygene
B. Pleiotropism
C. Dominance
D. Multiple allele

18. Triticale was first developed by –

A. Kihara
B. Sears
C. Rimpau
D. Borlaug

19. Cross between two single crosses is known as –

A. Double cross
B. Top cross
C. Three-way cross
D. Varietal hybrid

20. Stadler first used X-ray for inducing mutation in –

A. Drosophila
B. Wheat
C. Barley
D. Maize

21. Terms interference and coincidence were coined by –

A. Bateson (1905)
B. Morgan (1931)
C. Muller (1916)
D. Janssens (1909)

22. The experiment for operon concept was done on –

A. Neurospora
B. Drosophila
C. E. coli
D. Garden pea

23. Brassica juncea is an amphidiploid between —

A. B. campestris × B. nigra
B. B. campestris × B. oleracea
C. B. nigra × B. oleracea
D. B. carinata × B. napus

24. The germplasm theory was proposed by —

A. August Weismann
B. Charles Darwin
C. de Vries
D. Lamarck

25. Highest area under coffee plantation is in —

A. Kerala
B. Tamil Nadu
C. Karnataka
D. Assam

26. Kalyanpur Mohini is a variety of —

A. Chilli
B. Bell pepper
C. Kerela
D. Okra

27. Sreemangala is a variety of —

A. Coconut
B. Oil palm
C. Cashew
D. Arecanut

28. Lye peeling is done with the help of —

A. Caustic soda
B. Sodium bicarbonate
C. Potassium permanganate
D. Sulphuric acid

29. The red colour of jelly is due to addition of —

A. Artificial colour
B. Pectin
C. Acid
D. Charring of sugar

30. Indeterminate variety of tomato is —

A. Punjab Chhuhara
B. Pusa Gaurav
C. Pant Bahar
D. Pusa Early Dwarf

31. Bougainvillea cultivar with variegated leaves is —

A. Mahara
B. Thimma
C. Snow White
D. Begum Sikandar

32. Non-tunicated bulb is —

A. Tulip
B. Gladiolus
C. Tuberose
D. Lilium

33. Pusa Ruby is a variety of —

A. Potato
B. Tomato
C. Cabbage
D. Okra

34. Phalsa is pruned in the month of —

A. June
B. October
C. December
D. February

35. Papaya variety suitable for papain industry is —

A. CO-5
B. Pant-1
C. Coorg Honey Dew
D. Pusar Nanha

36. Mango variety free from spongy tissue is —

A. Malika
B. Amrapalli
C. Ratna
D. Sindhu

37. Which of the following is not an obligate plant parasite?

A. Powdery mildew pathogens
B. Puccinia graminis tritici
C. Colletotrichum falcatum
D. Downy mildew pathogens

38. Nutrient agar medium is generally used for culturing —

A. Bacteria
B. Fungi
C. Nematodes
D. Mycoplasmas

39. Which fungus produces cleistothecia with appendages having a bulbous base?

A. Full Actinomycosis
B. Erysiphe polygoni
C. Sphaerotheca humuli
D. Uncinula necator

40. Flask-shaped columellate sporangia are produced by —

A. Mucor
B. Absidia
C. Syncephalastrum
D. Pilobolus

41. Closely appressed parallel long conidiophores bearing conidia are called —

A. Synnema
B. Sprodachia
C. Acervuli
D. Pycnidium

42. Dolipore septum is characteristic of —

A. Basidiomycotina
B. Ascomycotina
C. Deuteromycotina
D. Zygomycotina

43. Baermann funnel technique is used for —

A. Detection of seed pathogens
B. Isolation of nematodes from soil
C. Isolation of fungal pathogens from diseased material
D. Screening of crop varieties for disease resistance

44. Typical leaf spots with concentric rings are produced by —

A. Helminthosporium
B. Colletotrichum
C. Alternaria
D. Pyricularia

45. Which nematode genus is commonly referred to as dagger nematode?

A. Hoplolaimus indicus
B. Xiphinema index
C. Hemicriconemoides
D. Trichodorus

46. Which of the following is the sexual reproductive fruiting body in fungi?

A. Cleistothecium
B. Synnema
C. Acervulus
D. Pyenidium

47. Loose smut disease of wheat is caused by —

A. Ustilago tritici
B. Anguina tritici
C. Urocystis tritici
D. Puccinia graminis tritici

48. The concentration of active ingredient in WP formulation of fungicides is —

A. More than 50%
B. 4–6%
C. 10%
D. 4–10%

49. Identify the essential amino acid —

A. Glycine
B. Tryptophan
C. Alanine
D. Serine

50. Find out the unsaturated fatty acid —

A. Butyric
B. Oleic
C. Palmitic
D. Stearic

51. Which base is absent in DNA?

A. Adenine
B. Guanine
C. Cytosine
D. Uracil

52. How many net ATP are produced in glycolysis?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

53. Which element is associated with nitrogen fixation?

A. Potassium
B. Zinc
C. Molybdenum
D. Iron

54. Identify the scientist associated with vernalization —

A. Maver
B. Mayber
C. Lysenko
D. Gamer and Allard

55. Which amino acid is synthesized in photorespiration?

A. Glutamic
B. Aspartic
C. Homoserine
D. Serine

56. Light reaction of photosynthesis takes place in —

A. Cytoplasm
B. Stroma
C. Mitochondria
D. Grana

57. Who suggested the concept of florigen?

A. Lysenko
B. Chailakhyan
C. Hammer
D. Borthwick

58. Find out the natural cytokinin —

A. Adenine
B. Purine
C. Benzyladenine
D. Zeatin

59. Identify the element directly associated with stomatal opening —

A. Ca
B. Mg
C. Na
D. K

60. First product of C₃ cycle is —

A. PEP
B. PGA
C. Malate
D. Pyruvate

61. The most severe land degradation process in India is —

A. Waterlogging and salinity
B. Water erosion
C. Soil structural degradation
D. Wind erosion

62. Plants wilt when soil water content reaches a suction of —

A. 15 bar
B. 5 bar
C. 1 bar
D. 1/3 bar

63. Microorganism responsible for conversion of ammonium ion to nitrite ion in soil —

A. Rhizobium
B. Nitrobacter
C. Nitrosomonas
D. Algae

64. The most abundant microorganisms in soils are —

A. Protozoa
B. Nitrobacter
C. Nitrosomonas
D. Algae

65. For balanced fertilizer use, the optimum N : P : K ratio is —

A. 6 : 2 : 1
B. 4 : 2 : 1
C. 6 : 4 : 2
D. 5 : 3 : 1

66. Which of the following is a mixed fertilizer?

A. Urea
B. Superphosphate
C. Calcium ammonium nitrate
D. Amophos

67. Optimum C/N ratio of compost for application as manure —

A. 10
B. 15
C. 20
D. 25

68. Which among the following is used as soil amendment?

A. Lime
B. Sodium hexametaphosphate
C. Sodium hydroxide
D. Sodium alginate

69. Which soil has highest cation exchange capacity?

A. Alluvial sandy loam
B. Red clay loam
C. Laterite loam
D. Black clayey soil

70. The chief inorganic colloidal fraction in soil is —

A. Aluminosilicate layer lattice clays
B. Hydrous oxides and hydroxides of Fe, Al, Si and Mn in clay size
C. Amorphous silicates
D. Clay-sized primary minerals

71. pH is measured based on —

A. Ohm’s law
B. Darcy law
C. Wheatstone bridge
D. Redox principle

72. The most important factor for laterite soil formation is —

A. Parent material
B. Topography
C. Climate
D. Vegetation

73. Epinasty takes place in case of —

A. Pendimethalin
B. Atrazine
C. 2,4-D
D. Butachlor

74. Deficiency symptom of which element first appears on lower leaves?

A. Nitrogen
B. Phosphorus
C. Potassium
D. Calcium

75. Percent P₂O₅ in DAP is —

A. 45
B. 48
C. 35
D. 38

76. Desuckering is associated with —

A. Groundnut
B. Sorghum
C. Potato
D. Tobacco

77. A good quality silage should have pH —

A. 7.0
B. 7.0–9.0
C. 3.7–4.2
D. 4.5–5.5

78. Grain moisture content (%) for safe storage of pulses should be in the range —

A. 9–12
B. 7–9
C. 12–14
D. 11–13

79. In most insect pests, the damaging stage is —

A. Egg
B. Larva
C. Pupa
D. Adult

80. Edible part of sweet potato is —

A. Modified root
B. Modified stem
C. Tuber
D. Rhizome

81. The scented long-grain rice hybrid is —

A. PRH-10
B. NDRH-1
C. NDRH-3
D. Improved Swarna

82. In which experimental design are two experimental errors calculated?

A. Completely randomized
B. Complete randomized block
C. Split plot
D. Factorial randomized block

83. When only one irrigation is available for wheat, it should be applied at —

A. Earing
B. Jointing
C. Dough
D. CRI

84. Which gas has the highest content in atmospheric air?

A. Oxygen
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Nitrogen
D. Methane

85. As per PFA rules, minimum fat and SNF contents of cow’s milk should be —

A. 3.5% and 8.5%
B. 4.0% and 8.0%
C. 4.5% and 8.5%
D. 5.0% and 8.0%

86. Ideal stage for insemination in cattle is —

A. Early heat
B. Late heat
C. Standing heat
D. Mid heat

87. The hormone responsible for holding up of milk is —

A. Oxytocin
B. Prolactin
C. Thyroxine
D. Adrenaline

88. The losses of energy in the form of faeces, urine and gases is —

A. SE
B. DE
C. ME
D. NE

89. The third compartment of the ruminant stomach is —

A. Rumen
B. Omasum
C. Reticulum
D. Abomasum

90. The best non-legume winter green fodder for milch animals is —

A. Berseem
B. Lucerne
C. Hybrid Napier
D. Oats

91. A desirable microorganism for good dahi culture is —

A. E. coli
B. Clostridium sp.
C. Salmonella
D. Streptococcus lactis

92. Which of the following is a metabolic disease?

A. Metritis
B. Mastitis
C. Ketosis
D. Perosis

93. Total floor space required for 50 cows in a face-out conventional barn is —

A. 3000 sq.ft
B. 3250 sq.ft
C. 3750 sq.ft
D. 4000 sq.ft

94. The best method of age determination in buffaloes is —

A. By dentition
B. By horn ring
C. By condition of hooves
D. By general condition of body

95. The number of recognized breeds of goats in India is —

A. 10
B. 20
C. 25
D. 28

96. The position of India with regard to milk production in the world is —

A. Fifth
B. Fourth
C. Third
D. First

97. Bromadiolone is used for the control of —

A. Rats
B. Mites
C. Slugs and snails
D. Nematodes

98. Ari lac is —

A. Matured lac
B. Immatured lac
C. Seed lac
D. Shell lac

99. Which one of the following is muga silkworm?

A. Bombyx mori
B. Antheraea paphia
C. Philosamia ricini
D. Antheraea assamensis

100. Which of the following is a honey robber?

A. Galleria mellonella
B. Acherontia styx
C. Camponotus compressus
D. Vespa orientalis

101. ETL is the pest population —

A. Equal to EIL
B. Above the EIL
C. Just below the EIL
D. Much below the EIL

102. Spilosoma obliqua hibernates in which stage?

A. Egg
B. Larva
C. Pupa
D. Adult

103. Stemmata are —

A. Dorsal ocelli
B. Pigment cells
C. Lateral ocelli
D. Iris cells

104. Meiosis takes place in —

A. Spermatogonia
B. Spermatocytes
C. Spermatozoids
D. Spermatozoa

105. Frenulum and retinaculum type of wing coupling is found in —

A. Coleoptera
B. Hymenoptera
C. Lepidoptera
D. Hemiptera

106. Which one of the following belongs to chlorinated hydrocarbons?

A. Endosulfan
B. Malathion
C. Carbofuran
D. Chlorpyriphos

107. Moulting fluid is produced by —

A. Epicuticle
B. Exocuticle
C. Endocuticle
D. Hypodermis

108. Chelicerae are present in —

A. Scorpions
B. Centipedes
C. Millipedes
D. Houseflies

109. Choose the most appropriate statement:

A. Agricultural extension is the best subject for post-graduation
B. Agricultural extension is as important as other agricultural disciplines
C. Agricultural extension is good only for those post-graduate students
D. Agricultural extension is good only for students who cannot get admission in other subjects

110. The better extension worker is one who —

A. Can speak well in public
B. Can get many awards
C. Satisfies his officers
D. Encourages farmers to be in the limelight and remains in the background

111. Choose the most appropriate statement:

A. Only wealthy and large farmers should be contacted initially
B. Landless farmers are of no utility
C. Village artisans are not useful in extension
D. Attempts should be made to involve all villagers

112. Choose the most appropriate statement:

A. If a farmer is in the field, he should not be disturbed
B. If the farmer the extension worker wishes to meet is not available, he should contact another suitable farmer
C. Extension worker should return to office if the farmer is not available
D. Extension worker should not enquire about whereabouts of the Pradhan

113. Choose the most appropriate statement:

A. There is no harm in sometimes accepting a cup of tea or light refreshment offered by a farmer
B. There is no harm drinking wine offered by the farmer
C. The extension worker should not accept any hospitality from the farmer at any time
D. The extension worker should take meals prepared by the farmer’s family as a routine

114. On reaching a village, the extension worker should —

A. Always contact the Pradhan
B. Contact the most progressive farmer
C. Just walk through the village
D. Observe more and talk less

115. Choose the most correct statement:

A. If private companies cheat farmers, extension workers may also do the same
B. The extension worker should never cheat the farmers
C. No harm if rich farmers are cheated
D. Small and marginal farmers should not be cheated

116. Choose the most correct statement:

A. Sometimes we have to lie to farmers in their interest
B. False statements may be given to farmers in the interest of science
C. We may lie to farmers because they don’t understand technical language
D. We should never tell a lie to the farmers

117. The most correct statement is —

A. All technologies developed by science are useful for farmers
B. Technologies developed by scientists are not useful
C. Agricultural technologies need modification from time to time
D. Only foolish farmers avoid modern technologies

118. To teach an improved technique of using a sickle for harvesting wheat, the best method is —

A. Poster
B. Method demonstration
C. Flip chart
D. Slide

119. In the USA, the Extension service is —

A. Very effective
B. Privately managed
C. Managed by government
D. Not useful because farmers know science

120. Teaching crop production to farmers is —

A. Quite easy
B. Not possible because they are illiterate
C. A time-taking process requiring a lot of patience
D. Not a science