1. What is the primary cause of ketosis in dairy cattle during early lactation?
A) Excess carbohydrate intake
B) Negative energy balance
C) Excess protein intake
D) Mineral deficiency
Answer: B) Negative energy balance
Rationale: Ketosis occurs when energy demand exceeds intake, causing fat mobilization and ketone production.
2. Which hormone is primarily responsible for the maintenance of pregnancy in cattle?
A) Estrogen
B) Progesterone
C) Oxytocin
D) Prolactin
Answer: B) Progesterone
Rationale: Progesterone supports uterine environment for embryo implantation and maintenance.
3. The most common cause of infertility in male sheep is:
A) Brucellosis
B) Foot rot
C) Parasite infestation
D) Nutritional deficiency
Answer: A) Brucellosis
Rationale: Brucellosis causes orchitis and infertility in rams.
4. In poultry, which vitamin deficiency causes “rickets”?
A) Vitamin A
B) Vitamin D3
C) Vitamin E
D) Vitamin K
Answer: B) Vitamin D3
Rationale: Vitamin D3 deficiency leads to improper calcium metabolism causing rickets.
5. What is the primary advantage of using artificial insemination (AI) in livestock?
A) Increased disease transmission
B) Genetic improvement
C) Increased feed intake
D) Natural breeding behavior
Answer: B) Genetic improvement
Rationale: AI allows selective breeding from superior sires, enhancing genetics.
6. Which of the following diseases is caused by a protozoan parasite in cattle?
A) Anthrax
B) Babesiosis
C) Tuberculosis
D) Brucellosis
Answer: B) Babesiosis
Rationale: Babesiosis is a protozoan disease transmitted by ticks.
7. What is the recommended age for first breeding of beef heifers?
A) 6 months
B) 12 months
C) 18-24 months
D) 30 months
Answer: C) 18-24 months
Rationale: Heifers reach puberty and sufficient maturity by 18-24 months for breeding.
8. Which of the following feed components provides the highest energy content?
A) Protein
B) Carbohydrates
C) Lipids
D) Fiber
Answer: C) Lipids
Rationale: Lipids provide more than twice the energy per gram compared to carbohydrates and protein.
9. The term “flushing” in sheep husbandry refers to:
A) Vaccination schedule
B) Feeding high-energy diet before breeding
C) Deworming process
D) Shearing process
Answer: B) Feeding high-energy diet before breeding
Rationale: Flushing improves ovulation rates and fertility by boosting nutrition.
10. In goats, which mineral deficiency is commonly associated with “white muscle disease”?
A) Copper
B) Selenium
C) Iron
D) Zinc
Answer: B) Selenium
Rationale: Selenium deficiency causes muscle degeneration and white muscle disease.
11. What is the normal gestation period for a dairy cow?
A) 250 days
B) 280 days
C) 305 days
D) 340 days
Answer: B) 280 days
Rationale: Typical bovine gestation lasts approximately 280 days.
12. Which vaccine is commonly used to control hemorrhagic septicemia in cattle?
A) Killed bacterial vaccine
B) Live attenuated viral vaccine
C) Toxoid vaccine
D) Subunit vaccine
Answer: A) Killed bacterial vaccine
Rationale: Hemorrhagic septicemia is bacterial; killed vaccines are effective.
13. The primary site of nutrient absorption in ruminants is:
A) Rumen
B) Omasum
C) Abomasum
D) Small intestine
Answer: D) Small intestine
Rationale: Most nutrient absorption occurs in the small intestine post-digestion.
14. Which one is a common cause of mastitis in dairy cows?
A) Salmonella
B) Staphylococcus aureus
C) Clostridium tetani
D) Brucella abortus
Answer: B) Staphylococcus aureus
Rationale: S. aureus is a major contagious mastitis pathogen.
15. What is the ideal body condition score (BCS) for breeding ewes?
A) 1-2
B) 2.5-3.5
C) 4-5
D) 5-6
Answer: B) 2.5-3.5
Rationale: Moderate BCS improves reproductive efficiency and lamb survival.
16. Which feed ingredient is a rich source of rumen undegradable protein (RUP)?
A) Wheat bran
B) Soybean meal
C) Corn grain
D) Fish meal
Answer: D) Fish meal
Rationale: Fish meal contains high levels of RUP, escaping rumen degradation.
17. The main function of oxytocin in parturition is:
A) Initiate milk letdown
B) Stimulate uterine contractions
C) Promote fetal growth
D) Inhibit prolactin secretion
Answer: B) Stimulate uterine contractions
Rationale: Oxytocin triggers contractions to assist delivery.
18. Which breed of cattle is best known for heat tolerance?
A) Holstein Friesian
B) Jersey
C) Brahman
D) Angus
Answer: C) Brahman
Rationale: Brahman cattle have physiological adaptations for heat tolerance.
19. Which parasite causes “liver fluke” disease in livestock?
A) Fasciola hepatica
B) Haemonchus contortus
C) Ascaris suum
D) Trypanosoma brucei
Answer: A) Fasciola hepatica
Rationale: Fasciola is a trematode causing liver damage.
20. What is the recommended calcium to phosphorus ratio in ruminant diets?
A) 1:2
B) 1:1
C) 2:1
D) 3:1
Answer: C) 2:1
Rationale: Proper Ca:P ratio is essential for bone metabolism and health.
21. Which of the following diseases in poultry is characterized by “sneezing” and respiratory distress?
A) Newcastle Disease
B) Infectious Coryza
C) Avian Influenza
D) Marek’s Disease
Answer: B) Infectious Coryza
Rationale: Infectious coryza causes nasal discharge and sneezing.
22. In swine, what is the primary cause of “Porcine Reproductive and Respiratory Syndrome” (PRRS)?
A) Virus
B) Bacteria
C) Protozoa
D) Fungi
Answer: A) Virus
Rationale: PRRS is caused by an arterivirus affecting reproduction and respiratory systems.
23. Which vitamin is essential for blood clotting in animals?
A) Vitamin A
B) Vitamin C
C) Vitamin K
D) Vitamin E
Answer: C) Vitamin K
Rationale: Vitamin K is required for synthesis of clotting factors.
24. The process of “rumination” in cattle involves:
A) Swallowing food once
B) Regurgitating and rechewing food
C) Chewing food only once
D) Storing food in the abomasum
Answer: B) Regurgitating and rechewing food
Rationale: Rumination allows breakdown of fibrous plant material.
25. Which disease is caused by Mycobacterium bovis in cattle?
A) Brucellosis
B) Tuberculosis
C) Leptospirosis
D) Anthrax
Answer: B) Tuberculosis
Rationale: M. bovis causes bovine tuberculosis.
26. What is the average lifespan of a dairy cow in commercial production?
A) 2-3 years
B) 4-6 years
C) 8-10 years
D) 12-15 years
Answer: B) 4-6 years
Rationale: Most dairy cows are productive for about 4-6 years in commercial systems.
27. Which physiological stage in dairy cattle demands the highest nutrient intake?
A) Dry period
B) Early lactation
C) Mid-lactation
D) Late lactation
Answer: B) Early lactation
Rationale: Peak milk production requires high energy and nutrient intake.
28. What is the main purpose of “dehorning” in cattle?
A) Increase feed intake
B) Reduce aggressive behavior and injuries
C) Improve milk yield
D) Control parasites
Answer: B) Reduce aggressive behavior and injuries
Rationale: Dehorning prevents injury among animals and handlers.
29. Which of the following is a zoonotic disease transmitted from sheep to humans?
A) Foot and Mouth Disease
B) Q Fever
C) Johne’s Disease
D) Coccidiosis
Answer: B) Q Fever
Rationale: Q Fever is caused by Coxiella burnetii and can infect humans.
30. In fish farming, which parameter is critical for dissolved oxygen maintenance?
A) pH level
B) Water temperature
C) Salinity
D) Turbidity
Answer: B) Water temperature
Rationale: Higher temperatures reduce dissolved oxygen levels in water.
31. The hormone responsible for milk let-down in dairy animals is:
A) Prolactin
B) Oxytocin
C) Estrogen
D) Cortisol
Answer: B) Oxytocin
Rationale: Oxytocin stimulates contraction of myoepithelial cells around alveoli.
32. Which mineral deficiency causes “goiter” in livestock?
A) Iodine
B) Selenium
C) Copper
D) Zinc
Answer: A) Iodine
Rationale: Iodine deficiency impairs thyroid hormone synthesis causing goiter.
33. What is the main reason for providing “silage” to ruminants?
A) High protein content
B) Preservation of forage for off-season use
C) Increase dry matter intake
D) Reduce feed cost
Answer: B) Preservation of forage for off-season use
Rationale: Silage allows storage of green fodder by fermentation.
34. Which disease in cattle is characterized by “bloody diarrhea” and sudden death?
A) Blackleg
B) Anthrax
C) Foot and Mouth Disease
D) Lumpy skin disease
Answer: B) Anthrax
Rationale: Anthrax causes sudden death with hemorrhagic symptoms.
35. Which breed of chicken is primarily used for egg production?
A) Rhode Island Red
B) Cornish Cross
C) Brahma
D) Sussex
Answer: A) Rhode Island Red
Rationale: Rhode Island Reds are prolific layers.
36. What is the primary cause of bloat in ruminants?
A) Viral infection
B) Rapid fermentation of legume-rich diets
C) Parasite infestation
D) Mineral deficiency
Answer: B) Rapid fermentation of legume-rich diets
Rationale: Gas accumulation from fermentation causes bloat.
37. Which enzyme is secreted by the abomasum in ruminants?
A) Amylase
B) Pepsin
C) Cellulase
D) Lipase
Answer: B) Pepsin
Rationale: Pepsin breaks down proteins in the abomasum.
38. What is the most common nutritional disorder in intensively fed dairy cattle?
A) Hypocalcemia
B) Bloat
C) Laminitis
D) Fatty liver syndrome
Answer: D) Fatty liver syndrome
Rationale: Excessive mobilization of fat causes fatty liver in early lactation.
39. Which of the following is a viral disease causing high mortality in young poultry?
A) Marek’s disease
B) Avian Influenza
C) Infectious Bursal Disease
D) Coccidiosis
Answer: C) Infectious Bursal Disease
Rationale: IBD affects immune system leading to mortality in chicks.
40. In animal breeding, “heterosis” refers to:
A) Inbreeding depression
B) Hybrid vigor
C) Genetic mutation
D) Selective breeding
Answer: B) Hybrid vigor
Rationale: Heterosis improves offspring performance due to genetic diversity.
41. Which of the following is a clinical sign of brucellosis in cattle?
A) Diarrhea
B) Abortion
C) Coughing
D) Skin lesions
Answer: B) Abortion
Rationale: Brucellosis causes abortion in cattle.
42. What is the normal temperature range for a healthy adult cow?
A) 98-99°F
B) 101.5-103.5°F
C) 104-106°F
D) 95-97°F
Answer: B) 101.5-103.5°F
Rationale: Normal bovine body temperature is approx. 101.5-103.5°F.
43. Which feeding practice improves rumen microbial protein synthesis?
A) High concentrate, low fiber diet
B) Balanced diet with adequate roughage
C) Low protein, high fiber diet
D) High fat diet
Answer: B) Balanced diet with adequate roughage
Rationale: Proper fiber supports rumen microbes for protein synthesis.
44. Which infectious disease in pigs is controlled by vaccination and causes reproductive failure?
A) Classical Swine Fever
B) PRRS
C) Porcine Parvovirus
D) Foot and Mouth Disease
Answer: C) Porcine Parvovirus
Rationale: Parvovirus causes stillbirths and mummified fetuses.
45. What is the main reason for providing mineral blocks to grazing animals?
A) Increase feed intake
B) Correct mineral deficiencies
C) Cure parasites
D) Improve fertility
Answer: B) Correct mineral deficiencies
Rationale: Mineral blocks supplement minerals lacking in pasture.
46. Which hormone is used to synchronize estrus in cattle?
A) Prolactin
B) Progesterone
C) Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)
D) Luteinizing hormone (LH)
Answer: B) Progesterone
Rationale: Progesterone-based protocols synchronize estrous cycles.
47. What is the cause of “foot rot” in sheep?
A) Viral infection
B) Fungal infection
C) Bacterial infection
D) Nutritional deficiency
Answer: C) Bacterial infection
Rationale: Foot rot is caused by Fusobacterium necrophorum.
48. Which breed of buffalo is primarily used for dairy production?
A) Murrah
B) Jaffarabadi
C) Bhadawari
D) Surti
Answer: A) Murrah
Rationale: Murrah buffalo are high milk producers.
49. The major protein source in fish feed is usually:
A) Corn gluten meal
B) Fish meal
C) Wheat bran
D) Soybean hulls
Answer: B) Fish meal
Rationale: Fish meal is a rich, highly digestible protein for fish.
50. Which livestock species is most susceptible to “scrapie”?
A) Cattle
B) Sheep
C) Goats
D) Pigs
Answer: B) Sheep
Rationale: Scrapie is a transmissible spongiform encephalopathy affecting sheep.
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